SSLC SS Model Questions
Chapter 1: Weather and Climate
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three elements that influence the atmospheric conditions of any place.
A: Temperature, Pressure, and Wind.
Set B Q: Identify three major processes through which heat is transferred from the Earth’s surface to the atmosphere.
A: Conduction, Convection, and Radiation.
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the atmospheric phenomenon with the corresponding definition/description.
1. Terrestrial radiation:
2. Normal Lapse Rate:
A: Terrestrial radiation: The re-radiation of energy in the form of long waves from the earth’s surface.
Normal Lapse Rate: The gradual decrease in temperature at the rate of 6.4º Celsius per kilometre of altitude.
Set B Q: Pair the geographical concept with its definition.
1. Isobars:
2. Doldrums:
A:. Isobars: Smooth curved lines drawn on maps connecting places having equal atmospheric pressure.
Doldrums: The Equatorial Low Pressure Belt, which is a windless zone.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines the climate of a place? A: The average weather condition experienced for a longer period (about 35 to 40 years) over a larger area.
Set B Q: What characteristic defines an Anticyclone? A: Anticyclones are high-pressure systems from which winds whirl outwards, and they generally do not cause atmospheric disturbances.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the condensation form with its description.
1. Dew
2. Frost
3. Clouds
A: 1. Tiny droplets of water that cling to cold surfaces; 2. Tiny crystals of ice formed when atmospheric temperature falls below 0º Celsius; 3. Condensation around tiny dust particles in the atmosphere, forming water droplets less than 0.001 cm in diameter.
Set B Q: Match the instrument with its function.
1. Anemometer
2. Barometer
3. Wind Vane
A: 1. Measures the speed of wind; 2. Measures atmospheric pressure; 3. Indicates the direction of wind.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between Weather and Climate.
A: Weather refers to atmospheric conditions (such as temperature, pressure, etc.) for a shorter period of time. Climate is the average weather condition experienced for a longer period (about 35 to 40 years) over a larger area.
Set B Q: Differentiate between Heat and Temperature.
A: Heat is the total energy of an object due to molecular movement, measured in Joule. Temperature is the degree of hotness of an object, recorded in units such as Degree Celsius, Degree Fahrenheit, and Kelvin.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the connection between Terrestrial Radiation and the Greenhouse Effect.
A: Terrestrial radiation is the re-radiation of energy in the form of long waves from the earth’s surface. The absorption of this terrestrial radiation by atmospheric gases (like carbon dioxide) heats up the atmosphere, a phenomenon known as the Greenhouse Effect.
Set B Q: Explain how the Coriolis Force affects wind direction globally.
A: Owing to the Coriolis effect, winds deflect towards the right of their direction in the Northern Hemisphere and towards the left of their direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate how Ocean Currents affect the temperature of coastal regions, providing an example.
A: Warm currents raise the temperature along coastal regions, while cold currents lower it. For example, the warm North Atlantic Current provides relief from severe cold to Western European countries.
Set B Q: Analyze why the temperature recorded at 2 pm is considered the maximum temperature of the day by meteorologists.
A: The atmosphere is heated through various processes of heat transfer (Conduction, Convection, Advection, and Radiation) from the Earth’s surface. Because it takes more time for the atmosphere to get heated up than the Earth’s surface, the temperature attains its maximum around 2 pm.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: How does increasing humidity affect atmospheric pressure?
A: As humidity increases, water molecules displace heavier gases like nitrogen and oxygen. Since humid air is lighter than dry air, the atmospheric pressure becomes low.
Set B Q: What conditions lead to the occurrence of a Cloud burst?
A: A Cloud burst is considered to occur if the amount of intense rainfall (torrential rain) exceeds 10 cm per hour.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe Isotherms.
A: Isotherms are smooth curved lines drawn connecting places having equal temperature. Isotherm maps are useful for analysing temperature distribution.
Set B Q: Identify and describe Orographic rainfall.
A: Orographic rainfall occurs when moisture-laden winds from the sea enter the land and are raised along mountain slopes, leading to condensation and the formation of rain clouds along the windward slopes.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why the Polar High Pressure Belts are formed.
A: Polar High Pressure Belts are formed as a result of the contraction and subsidence of cold air due to the cold atmospheric conditions prevailing along the poles.
Set B Q: Justify why the Global Pressure Belts are subjected to relative shifts seasonally.
A: The global pressure belts are subjected to relative shifts because the temperature conditions vary with the apparent movement of the sun.
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Chapter 2: Climatic Regions and Climate Change [221–261]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three geographical regions known for tropical grasslands.
A: Savanna (Africa), Campos (Southern Brazil), and Llanos (Venezuela).
Set B Q: Identify three agreements or treaties related to international climate initiatives.
A: Kyoto Protocol (1997), Montreal Protocol (1987), and Paris Agreement (2015).
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the climatic region with its dominant vegetation.
1. Monsoon climatic region:
2. Taiga climatic region:
A: Monsoon climatic region: Evergreen and deciduous trees (deciduous being more common).
Taiga climatic region: Sub-Arctic coniferous evergreen trees (pine, fir, spruce).
Set B Q: Pair the international agreement with its core purpose.
1. Montreal Protocol (1987):
2. Kyoto Protocol (1997):
A: Montreal Protocol (1987): Reduce the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances.
Kyoto Protocol (1997): Reduce the amount of Green House gases in the atmosphere.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines the Equatorial climatic region?
A: High temperatures and high rainfall throughout the year, caused by vertical solar rays falling almost vertically year-round, resulting in high air convection and convectional precipitation.
Set B Q: What are the primary characteristics of the Tundra region climate?
A: It is characterized by a very low mean annual temperature, short summers, and long winters, with precipitation mainly in the form of snowfall.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the local name of temperate grassland with its location.
1. Steppes
2. Prairies
3. Pampas
A: 1. Temperate grasslands; 2. North America; 3. South America.
Set B Q: Match the cause of climate change with its classification.
1. Deforestation
2. Volcanic eruption
3. Ocean currents
A: 1. Anthropogenic; 2. Natural; 3. Natural.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between a Monsoon climate and a Mediterranean climate.
A: Monsoon climate is characterised by a long and humid summer and a short dry winter. Mediterranean climate is characterised by dry summers and humid winters, with rainfall occurring during the winter.
Set B Q: Differentiate between Natural and Anthropogenic causes of climate change.
A: Natural causes are uncontrollable processes, such as volcanic eruption and ocean currents. Anthropogenic causes are human interventions, such as deforestation, oil mining, industrialization, and urbanization.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the phenomenon of Greenhouse Effect and identify gases responsible for it.
A: The Greenhouse Effect is the process where certain atmospheric gases (like carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide) trap solar energy by intercepting terrestrial radiation, keeping the atmosphere warm.
Set B Q: Explain the formation of hot deserts on the western margins of continents in the tropical region.
A: Tropical deserts are located mostly on the western margins of continents because as the trade winds travel across the continents, they lose their moisture and become dry by the time they reach the western margins, keeping these areas dry throughout the year.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate the title 'Prairie – The Granary of the World'.
A: The Prairie is referred to as the world’s granary because nearly two million acres of this vast temperate grassland in North America are under commercial grain cultivation. This is due to moderate temperature, rainfall availability, and fertile soil.
Set B Q: Analyze the consequences faced by countries like Nepal and Maldives due to global climate change.
A: Nepal is severely affected by Himalayan glaciers melting rapidly (12 to 20 metres per year). Maldives, a low-lying island nation, is at risk of being completely submerged if the sea level rises by two and a half metres.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: What are the consequences when human activities result in excess production of greenhouse gases?
A: The Greenhouse Effect becomes stronger, causing the atmospheric temperature to increase. This increase, called Global warming, accelerates climate change.
Set B Q: Why is the diurnal range of temperature very low in coastal areas and very high in the interiors of monsoon climatic regions?
A: The winds blowing from the sea help to moderate the temperature along coastal areas, resulting in a low diurnal range. Away from the sea, the maritime influence decreases, causing a high day temperature and low night temperature, resulting in a high diurnal range.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe Climate Refugees.
A: Climate Refugees are people who have to leave their homes and livelihood due to climate-related phenomena such as droughts, floods, desertification, and sea-level rise.
Set B Q: Identify and describe Global Warming.
A: Global warming is the increase in atmospheric temperature caused by the strengthening of the Greenhouse Effect due to the excess production of greenhouse gases from human activities.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why the Tundra region has sparse vegetation.
A: Natural vegetation is scanty because of insufficient sunlight and long winters. Trees are normally absent, and plants only grow during the short summer season.
Set B Q: Justify why the monsoon climatic region is suitable for intensive subsistence agriculture.
A: The monsoon climatic region is suitable for agriculture because of the high rainfall and the availability of labour.
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Chapter 3: From The Rainy Forests to The Land of Permafrost [262–311]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three native groups of the equatorial rainforests.
A: Pygmies of Africa, Indian tribes of the Amazon Basin, and Orang Asli of Malaysia.
Set B Q: Identify three characteristics of the Tundra climate.
A: Very low mean annual temperature, short summers, and long winters.
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the geographical feature with its location or climate zone.
1. Selvas:
2. Doldrums:
A:. Selvas: Rainforest found in the Amazon Basin.
Doldrums: The low-pressure region along the equator where horizontal air movement is minimal.
Set B Q: Pair the Tundra tribe with their description or region.
1. Eskimos/Inuit:
2. Samoyeds:
A:. Eskimos/Inuit: Native groups of Greenland, North Canada, and Alaska.
. Samoyeds: Native groups of Siberia.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines an arboreal animal in the equatorial region?
A: These are animals that spend most of their lives in trees, thriving in the equatorial climatic region due to its unique features.
Set B Q: What characteristic defines the concept of Polar Night?
A: The period when the sun never rises for weeks in the area between the Arctic Circle and the Pole.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the structure/concept in the equatorial region with its description.
1. Belukar
2. Kampongs
3. Maloca
A: 1. Secondary forests that spring up after clearings are abandoned in Malaysia; 2. Villages in the equatorial regions of Malaysia; 3. A distinct type of house in the Amazon Basin with steep-sided slanting roofs.
Set B Q: Match the Tundra feature with its purpose.
1. Igloo
2. Sledges
A: 1. Dome-shaped, temporary shelters made of snow; 2. Distinct vehicles that slide over snow, used for transportation.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between the tropical rainforest and typical temperate forest conditions based on the yearly cycles.
A: In the tropical rainforest, there is no particular season for seeding, flowering, fruiting, and shedding leaves, as these processes occur year-round.
Set B Q: Differentiate between the Equatorial Climatic Region and the Tundra Region in terms of vegetation.
A: Equatorial regions are characterized by luxuriant evergreen rainforests. The Tundra region is generally devoid of trees, with vegetation limited to mosses, lichens, sedges, and bushes.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain why Kilimanjaro is snow-covered throughout the year despite being situated in the equatorial climatic region.
A: This phenomenon is due to the mountain's high altitude. Atmospheric temperature gradually decreases with an increase in altitude, following the Normal Lapse Rate (6.4º Celsius per kilometre).
Set B Q: Explain the primary reason why undergrowth is absent on the floor of the equatorial rainforests.
A: Undergrowth is absent because the forests are dense, and the canopies formed by trees at different heights prevent sufficient sunlight from penetrating to the forest floor.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate why the Equatorial Evergreen Forests are often referred to as the 'Lungs of the World'.
A: These evergreen rainforests absorb carbon dioxide and produce oxygen at a massive rate, leading to their description as the 'Lungs of the World'.
Set B Q: Analyze the purpose of the shelter types (Maloca and Kampongs) found in the Amazon and Malaysian equatorial regions.
A: In the Amazon, Malocas have steep-sided slanting roofs. In Malaysia, Kampongs are often made of wood, bamboo, and leaves, ensuring that extreme heat is not felt inside the houses.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Why is commercial extraction of timber challenging in equatorial rainforests?
A: The density of the forest hinders the transportation of logs, and the hardwoods commonly found there are too heavy to be floated down streams.
Set B Q: What is the primary environmental problem posed by climate change to the Tundra region?
A: Due to global warming, the permafrost (permanently frozen layer) in the Tundra melts considerably, which adversely affects the ecosystem and environmental equilibrium of the region.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe the Doldrums.
A: The Doldrums is the low-pressure region developed along the equator due to high insolation. Horizontal movement of air is minimal in this windless zone where trade winds converge.
Set B Q: Identify and describe the traditional agricultural method commonly practiced by tribes in the equatorial rainforests.
A: Shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, is practiced, where crops are grown after clearing a forest area by cutting and burning the trees until the land loses fertility.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why the equatorial climatic region does not experience winter.
A: The region receives vertical solar rays throughout the year. The constantly high rate of insolation causes consistently high temperature, meaning the region does not experience winter.
Set B Q: Justify why livestock rearing is not a primary subsistence activity in the equatorial climatic region.
A: Livestock rearing is limited due to the absence of grazing land (as undergrowth is absent) and frequent insect attacks on the animals.
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Chapter 4: Consumer: Rights and Protection [312–346]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three rights guaranteed to consumers by law.
A: Right to Safety, Right to Choose, and Right to Know.
Set B Q: Identify three purposes of the Consumer Protection Movement.
A: To protect consumer rights, to prevent frauds, and to empower consumers.
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the quality symbol with its related sector.
1. ISI mark
2. AGMARK
A:. ISI mark: Ensures quality standards on industrial products (e.g., cement, gas cylinders).
AGMARK: Used to ensure the quality of agricultural and forestry products.
Set B Q: Pair the court level with its compensation jurisdiction.
1. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
2. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
A: District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Cases involving compensation up to Rs. 1 crore.
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Cases involving compensation exceeding Rs. 10 crore.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines Utility in economics?
A: Utility is the want-satisfying power of a commodity/good.
Set B Q: What are the primary features of the Consumer Protection Act 2019?
A: It established the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to enforce rights and prohibits the dissemination of misleading advertisements.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the type of good with its time dependency.
1. Durable goods
2. Non-durable goods
A: 1. Things that last for a long time and can be reused (e.g., house, footwear); 2. Items that can be used only for a short period of time (e.g., milk, vegetables).
Set B Q: Match the fraud type with the appropriate authority for complaint resolution.
1. Online Fraud
2. Banking frauds
A: 1. Complain to Cyber Crime Cell at cybercrime.gov.in or report to CERT - IN portal; 2. Approach the Bank Grievance Redressal Mechanism (Branch Manager) or the RBI Ombudsman.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between Total Utility (TU) and Marginal Utility (MU).
A: Total utility is the total amount of utility received when continuously consuming several units of a commodity. Marginal utility is the change in total utility that occurs when one additional unit is consumed.
Set B Q: Differentiate between Utility and Usefulness.
A: All goods and services have utility (want-satisfying power), but not all of them need to be useful.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility.
A: This law states that the Marginal Utility derived from consuming each additional unit of a commodity declines as its consumption increases, while keeping consumption of other commodities constant.
Set B Q: Explain the importance of the Right to Consumer Education.
A: This right ensures the consumer acquires the knowledge and skills to be an informed consumer. It raises awareness and instills self-protection values, helping consumers to be protected from frauds and wrongful transactions.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate the social commitment ensured by collecting a bill with the GST number when purchasing goods.
A: Collecting a bill with the GST number not only protects consumer rights but also ensures a social commitment by supporting the tax structure ("One Nation, One Tax").
Set B Q: Analyze the structure and jurisdiction of the three-tier Consumer Court system in India.
A: The system includes the District Commission (up to Rs. 1 crore), State Commission (Rs. 1 crore to Rs. 10 crore), and the National Commission (exceeding Rs. 10 crore).
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: What are the primary factors leading to a consumer being cheated or exploited?
A: Consumers are sometimes duped if they lack a clear understanding of product-related issues like price, quality, warranty, and safety standards. Carelessness and ignorance often cause them to be cheated.
Set B Q: If a consumer is cheated in an online transaction, what immediate authorities should be approached for filing a complaint?
A: The consumer should complain to the Cyber Crime Cell at cybercrime.gov.in or report to the CERT - IN portal (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team).
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe the Cardinal Utility Theory.
A: This theory states that the satisfaction derived by the consumer through the consumption of goods and services can be quantified by using cardinal numbers.
Set B Q: Identify and describe National Consumer Day.
A: 24th December is observed as National Consumer Day to commemorate the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act in India in 1986.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why GST registration is mandatory for certain traders.
A: GST registration is mandatory for traders with an annual turnover of more than Rs 20 lakhs. The aim of GST is to make the economy transparent by unifying various taxes.
Set B Q: Justify why consumer courts were established as a separate judicial system in India.
A: Consumer courts were established following the Consumer Protection Act 1986 to provide a mechanism for the speedy resolution of consumer complaints.
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Chapter 5: Money and Economy [347–392]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three entities responsible for regulating Non-banking financial institutions.
A: Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDA).
Set B Q: Identify three goals set by Microfinance institutions.
A: Poverty alleviation, empowerment of women and the marginalized, and promotion of entrepreneurship.
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the RBI interest rate with its function.
1. Repo Rate:
2. Reverse Repo Rate:
A: Repo Rate: The rate of interest charged by the Reserve Bank of India on the loans taken by commercial banks.
Reverse Repo Rate: The rate of interest given by the Reserve Bank of India on the deposits by the commercial banks.
Set B Q: Pair the money supply classification with its terminology.
1. M1 and M2:
2. M3 and M4:
A: M1 and M2: Known as narrow money.
M3 and M4: Known as broad money.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What is a defining characteristic of Core Banking?
A: It is a system that enables an account holder of a bank to carry out financial transactions from any of its branches.
Set B Q: What is the defining characteristic of the Prime Minister Jan Dhan Account scheme?
A: Its special feature is the zero minimum balance account, aimed at bringing all people under the ambit of banking services.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the digital payment system with its feature.
1. NEFT
2. RTGS
3. UPI
A: 1. Fund transfer system using the Indian Financial System Code (IFSC); 2. System introduced by RBI to transfer large amounts of money between account holders in a very short time; 3. Enables real-time money transfers between bank accounts through a mobile application.
Set B Q: Match the deposit account type with its feature.
1. Current Deposit
2. Term Deposit (Fixed Deposit)
A: 1. Intended for business transactions, has no transaction limit, and provides an overdraft facility; 2. Money that is not needed immediately, earning more interest than a savings bank account.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between Fiscal policy and Monetary policy.
A: Fiscal policy is the government's policy regarding taxation and government spending. Monetary policy is the RBI’s policy regarding the supply of money and the rate of interest.
Set B Q: Differentiate between Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Institutions.
A: Commercial banks are licensed by the RBI to provide banking services and accept savings and deposits. NBFIs cannot accept savings and deposits from the public, nor can money be withdrawn using cheques from them.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the function of money as a 'Store of Value'.
A: When money became something that was acceptable to everyone, it made it possible to store the value of any good in the form of money. This allows converting the value of goods into money or assets for future use.
Set B Q: Explain how high velocity of circulation of money stimulates economic activities.
A: Velocity of circulation measures how many times a unit of money is exchanged in a given period. An increase in velocity means currency changes hands repeatedly, accelerating transactions in production, distribution, and consumption, thereby accelerating economic growth.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate the significance of the RBI as the Custodian of foreign exchange reserves.
A: The RBI is the custodian of the economy's foreign exchange reserves. These reserves are the sum total of foreign currencies and gold reserves.
Set B Q: Analyze the goal and mechanism of the 2016 Demonetization in India.
A: The goal was to prevent corruption, black money, terrorism, and counterfeit currencies. The mechanism involved declaring existing Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 notes illegal tender and printing new currency notes.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: What is the economic risk associated with uncontrolled lending by banks in the economy?
A: Uncontrolled lending increases the supply of money. If the production of goods and services does not increase proportionately, it leads to inflation (an increase in the general price level).
Set B Q: Why do banks offer higher interest rates on fixed deposits compared to savings deposits?
A: Fixed deposits hold money that is not needed immediately. Since the money is held for a set period and withdrawn subject to restrictions, banks pay more interest on such deposits than on savings accounts.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe Inflation.
A: Inflation is an increase in the general price level of goods and services that occurs when the supply of money increases and the production of goods and services does not increase proportionately.
Set B Q: Identify and describe the role of the Reserve Bank of India.
A: The RBI is the central bank of India, responsible for printing and issuing currency (except coins and one rupee notes), acting as the bankers' bank, and controlling the supply of money and credit.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why the Reserve Bank of India controls the supply of money and credit.
A: The RBI controls credit because if inflation increases without control, it causes a decrease in the purchasing power of money, which adversely affects economic growth and production.
Set B Q: Justify why the Government of India retains the power to print one rupee notes and coins.
A: This is due to a historical convention dating back to the Coinage Acts of 1906 and 2011, which gave the central government the power to mint coins.
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Chapter 6: The Changing Earth [7–10, 12–59, 135–157]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three phenomena resulting from endogenic movements.
A: Earthquakes, Volcanism, and Plate Tectonics.
Set B Q: Identify three processes that cause the disintegration or decomposition of rocks (weathering).
A: Mechanical disintegration, chemical decomposition, and biological actions (e.g., plant roots, animal burrowing).
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the disaster term with its specific definition.
1. Hazard:
2. Disaster:
A:. Hazard: A situation that poses a threat to life, health, property, services, or the environment.
Disaster: A serious disruption causing widespread material, economic, or social losses that exceeds the affected society's ability to cope.
Set B Q: Pair the landform feature with its formation cause.
1. Horst:
2. Graben:
A:. Horst: The uplifted block of the Earth’s crust formed due to faulting.
Graben: The corresponding down-dropped block of the Earth’s crust formed due to faulting.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines the asthenosphere?
A: It is the zone lying just below the solid lithosphere where rocks exist in a partially molten (semi-liquid) state.
Set B Q: What is a defining characteristic of Mass Wasting?
A: It is the movement or fall of rock fragments or earth materials down a slope under the direct influence of gravitational pull.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the endogenic movement type with its intensity.
1. Earthquakes:
2. Orogenic Processes:
3. Epeirogenic Processes:
A: 1. Sudden Movements; 2. Diastrophic Movements (slow movements causing severe deformation); 3. Diastrophic Movements (slow movements causing minimal deformation/upliftment).
Set B Q: Match the seismic location with its description.
1. Focus (Hypocentre):
2. Epicentre:
A: 1. The point inside the Earth from which earthquake energy is released; 2. The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus, reached first by seismic waves.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between Magma and Lava.
A: Magma is the molten rock material present in the upper mantle. Lava is the molten rock material once it starts moving towards the crust or reaches the surface.
Set B Q: Differentiate between Epeirogenic and Orogenic movements.
A: Epeirogenic movements cause the upliftment of a large portion of the Earth’s crust and only minimal deformation. Orogenic movements cause severe deformation (folding) leading to the formation of mountains.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the formation of convection currents inside the Earth's mantle.
A: Thermal variations caused by radioactive elements cause magma in the mantle to heat up and move upward toward the crust. As it nears the crust, it cools and sinks back down, creating a continuous cyclic movement.
Set B Q: Explain how a tectonic earthquake occurs.
A: Earthquakes occur due to friction generated along plate margins when two lithospheric plates move past each other. When the plate pressure overcomes the friction, a sudden movement or rupture occurs, releasing energy as seismic waves.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate the ways in which weathering can be useful to humans.
A: Weathering leads to the formation of soil, helps separate minerals from rocks, causes mineral enrichment, and makes mining easier.
Set B Q: Analyze the primary mitigation measure for reducing the impact of tsunamis.
A: If the sea level suddenly goes down by several metres, it must be considered a tsunami warning, requiring immediate action to run away from the shore and move to higher ground.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Why do people still prefer to live in volcanic regions, despite the inherent dangers?
A: People settle in volcanic regions because the ash from volcanoes and the soil formed by the disintegration of rocks created from solidified lava are very fertile, making such places suitable for agriculture.
Set B Q: Why is an earthquake that occurs in an uninhabited desert generally considered a hazard but not a disaster?
A: A hazard is a physical event that has the potential to trigger a disaster. However, a physical event is only a disaster if it causes widespread material, economic, or social losses that exceed the affected society's ability to cope.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe the phenomenon of debris flow, locally known as 'Urulpottal' in Kerala.
A: Debris flow is the sudden movement of rock debris and soil mixed with water down a steep slope under the direct influence of gravity. In Kerala, this is locally known as 'Urulpottal'.
Set B Q: Identify and describe the difference between Magma and Lava.
A: Magma is the molten rock material present in the upper mantle. Lava is the molten rock material once it starts moving towards the crust or reaches the surface.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why the Himalayan regions are highly vulnerable to earthquakes.
A: The Himalayan regions are located along major plate margins. Earthquakes occur due to friction generated along these margins when two lithospheric plates move past each other.
Set B Q: Justify why mitigation measures, rather than prediction, are emphasized for earthquakes.
A: Earthquakes are categorized as sudden movements, making accurate prediction next to impossible. Therefore, the focus is on adopting precise preventive and awareness measures to mitigate the intensity of subsequent disasters.
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Chapter 7: Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation [60–113, 158–159]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three core objectives of the planning strategy adopted in India.
A: Growth, Modernization, and Self-reliance.
Set B Q: Identify three indices used to calculate the Human Development Index (HDI).
A: Life expectancy, Education index (Literacy and gross school enrollment rate), and GNI per capita (Per capita income).
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the economic concept with its measurement.
1. Economic growth:
2. Economic development:
A: Economic growth: Measured by the increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Economic development: Measured by the Human Development Index (HDI) or Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI).
Set B Q: Pair the Industrial Revolution with its breakthrough technology.
1. 1st Industrial Revolution:
2. 5th Industrial Revolution:
A:. 1st Industrial Revolution: Invention of the steam engine.
5th Industrial Revolution: Human-centric approach to digital technologies, including AI.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines the Knowledge Economy? A: It is an economic system that thrives by incorporating innovative ideas in the production, distribution, and use of knowledge and information, where knowledge is the key element.
Set B Q: What is a characteristic function of the World Trade Organization (WTO)? A: To set and enforce the rules of global trade among countries, provide a forum for negotiations, and promote fair competition.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the Nava Kerala Mission with its focus sector.
1. Aardram Mission
2. Life Mission
3. Vidhyakiranam
A: 1. Health sector; 2. Adequate housing; 3. Improve the education sector.
Set B Q: Match the economic policy with its related term.
1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization
A: 1. Policy change to relax restrictions; 2. Reducing the role of the public sector; 3. Integration of a country's economy with the global economy.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between Economic Growth and Economic Development.
A: Economic growth is a quantitative change (increase in GDP). Economic development is a qualitative change, focusing on improving the standard of living, education, and infrastructure.
Set B Q: Differentiate between Per Capita Income (PCI) and Personal Income (PI).
A: PCI is the average income of individuals (National Income divided by Population). PI is the actual total income earned by an individual from various sources.
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the primary objectives of the NITI Aayog.
A: NITI Aayog aims to create a vision for India's development priorities, promote sustainable development and inclusive growth, and encourage economic growth through innovation, entrepreneurship, and job creation.
Set B Q: Explain why economic growth must be accompanied by economic development to improve the quality of life.
A: Economic growth alone does not address basic problems like poverty, unemployment, and economic inequality. Economic development ensures that the benefits of increased production are shared by everyone, improving living conditions like educational facilities and nutrient availability.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate the features that characterize the Kerala Model of Development.
A: The Kerala model is characterized by high literacy rates, low infant mortality rates, and improved life expectancy, achieved through land reforms and universal public health and education systems.
Set B Q: Analyze the limitations of Per Capita Income (PCI) as an indicator of economic progress.
A: PCI is only an average income and does not reflect the distribution and inequality of wealth. It also excludes factors that enhance the quality of life.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: What was the primary mechanism used by the government to control the private sector in economic activities between 1950 and 1990? A: The government controlled the private sector through licenses, permits, and quotas (LPQ).
Set B Q: What policy shift occurred in India in 1991, and what was its main objective?
A: The shift was from LPQ to LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization). The main goal was to liberalize the Indian economy, open it to the world economy, and reduce government regulation.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe Globalization.
A: Globalization is the integration of a country's economy with the global economy, resulting from policies that encourage the widespread exchange of goods, services, capital, and technology.
Set B Q: Identify and describe Disinvestment.
A: Disinvestment is the sale of the government's investment or capital in a public sector enterprise to the private sector. This is considered the most important of the privatization processes.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify the statement made by Jawaharlal Nehru regarding planning.
A: Nehru stated that planning is necessary because it is a scientific method for utilizing the diverse resources, human potential, and skills of the country in the best and most comprehensive manner.
Set B Q: Justify why the economic growth rate is measured in percentage.
A: The economic growth rate is measured in percentage because it calculates the rate of increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the current year compared to the previous year.
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Chapter 8: Towards Sustainability [114–160]
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify three minerals used to extract Iron.
A: Hematite, Magnetite, and Limonite.
Set B Q: Identify three examples of Renewable energy sources.
A: Solar Energy, Tidal energy, and Wind.
Finding Relationships/Pairing (2 sets)
Set A Q: Pair the metal with its main ore.
1. Aluminium:
2. Copper:
A:. Aluminium: Bauxite.
Copper: Chalcopyrite or Native Copper.
Set B Q: Pair the sustainability concept with its origin.
1. Sustainable Development Definition:
2. Brundtland Report (1987):
A:. Sustainable Development Definition: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Brundtland Report (1987): The first to propose the concept of sustainable development at the global level.
Characteristic Identification (2 sets)
Set A Q: What characteristic defines Localised resources?
A: Resources that are found only in certain parts of the world (e.g., metal ores, fossil fuels).
Set B Q: What are the characteristics of Non-Renewable (Conventional) energy resources?
A: They get depleted and exhausted with use, they cause pollution, and they are very expensive to maintain, extract, and transport.
Sequencing/Matching (2 sets)
Set A Q: Match the resource classification based on the state of development with its description.
1. Developed Resources
2. Stocks
3. Reserves
A: 1. Resources whose quantity/quality have been surveyed and technology exists to utilize them efficiently; 2. Materials that can meet human needs but for which appropriate technology does not yet exist; 3. Resources that can be exploited with existing technology, but whose use is reserved for future needs.
Set B Q: Match the non-conventional energy source with its utilization method.
1. Solar Energy
2. Geothermal Energy
A: 1. Harnessing energy from the Sun using Photovoltaic and solar thermal capture methods; 2. Storing heat released when magma erupts, or generating thermal energy from hot water/vapour from geysers.
Comparison/Difference (2 sets)
Set A Q: Differentiate between Ubiquitous resources and Localised resources.
A: Ubiquitous resources are found everywhere (e.g., air, solar energy, water). Localised resources are found only in certain parts of the world (e.g., metal ores, fossil fuels).
Set B Q: Differentiate between Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources.
A: Biotic resources are anything that is part of the biosphere (e.g., humans, plants, animals). Abiotic resources are resources made of non-living matter (e.g., minerals).
Explanation/Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Explain the environmental disaster caused by the overexploitation of resources at the Aral Sea.
A: The Aral Sea was transformed into the Aralkum Desert because humans diverted its river sources (Amu Darya and Syr Darya) for agricultural purposes, leading to the lake drying up.
Set B Q: Explain why resource conservation is essential for human survival.
A: Resource conservation is necessary because natural resources are gradually dwindling, and conservation ensures their availability to future generations, helping to maintain the ability of nature to meet future needs.
Elucidation/Example Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: Elucidate the importance of Hydrogen as a future clean fuel source.
A: Hydrogen is a clean fuel because when burned in a fuel cell, only water vapor is released. It does not release pollutants like fossil fuels, making it important for future energy needs.
Set B Q: Analyze the significance of the Cochin International Airport example in the context of energy resources.
A: The Cochin International Airport runs entirely on solar energy. This demonstrates a model for meeting energy needs by utilizing renewable, non-conventional energy sources and reducing the use of fossil fuels.
Problem Analysis (2 sets)
Set A Q: What challenge does the ever-increasing demand for energy pose, considering the usage of fossil fuels?
A: Since all fossil fuels are non-renewable and their reserves will diminish with use, uncontrolled consumption could lead to a major energy crisis in the future.
Set B Q: Why is the metal Iron indispensable in human society, and what is its primary use?
A: Iron is an indispensable metal in daily life. About 98% of the iron ore mined worldwide is used to produce steel, which plays a crucial role in maintaining a strong industrial base.
Identification and Description (2 sets)
Set A Q: Identify and describe Sustainable Development.
A: Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Set B Q: Identify and describe Petroleum.
A: Petroleum is a naturally occurring, complex liquid mixture that originates from rocks ('rock oil'). It is nicknamed 'black gold' because it became the primary source of energy after the Industrial Revolution.
Reasoning/Justification (2 sets)
Set A Q: Justify why Humans are considered an essential element in the formation of resources.
A: Humans are considered resources because they create and develop resources using their abilities, skills, and technology, converting materials available in the environment into usable resources.
Set B Q: Justify why the Brundtland Report holds significant importance in resource conservation.
A: The Brundtland Report (1987), also known as Our Common Future, was the first to propose the concept of sustainable development at the global level, significantly contributing to resource conservation.
