SOCIAL SCIENCE I - Chapter-wise Questions
Chapter 1: Humanism
Which ancient civilisations are known as classical civilisations?
What does the word "Renaissance" mean?
In which year did the Ottoman Turks conquer Constantinople?
Who presented a revolutionary argument that the centre of the universe is not the Earth, but the Sun?
Who established the first printing press in Europe (made of metal and movable type) in the 15th century?
What was the name of the philosophical school of thought that dominated the Middle Ages and prioritised the divine and the afterlife?
Evaluate the significance of the statement that the Renaissance was a period of transition from the medieval to the modern.
Assess the impact of the conquest of Constantinople by the Turks on the intellectual landscape of Italy.
Chapter 2: Liberty Equality Fraternity
Which dynasty ruled France for decades before the revolution?
Who declared, "I am the State"?
What were the three social divisions in 18th-century France?
What was the tax levied by the clergy on common peasants, requiring one-tenth of the total produce?
Who wrote the famous work, The Social Contract?
When did the representatives of the Third Estate declare themselves the French National Assembly?
What event is considered the beginning of the French Revolution?
Who seized power by overthrowing the Directory in France?
What was the name of the military operation formulated by Napoleon to destroy Britain economically by banning trade with them?
Analyse the social system in 18th-century France.
Analyse the consequences of the French Revolution.
Chapter 3: Social Analysis: Through Sociological Imagination
What is Commonsense Knowledge?
What is a Social Problem?
Who introduced the concept of sociological imagination and in which book?
What is Sociology?
What is Social Mobility?
Who studied the social causes behind suicide and presented findings in the book Suicide (1897)?
Explain the key limitations of relying solely on commonsense knowledge for social analysis.
Describe the characteristics and benefits of using sociological imagination.
Chapter 4: Wealth and the World
Which two European nations were the first to embark on geographical expeditions?
Which Portuguese sailor reached the Cape of Good Hope in 1488?
Which Italian navigator reached the Bahamas Islands in 1492, receiving financial aid from Spain?
What name was given to the economic policy where nations aimed to accumulate wealth, primarily gold and silver, through trade?
What is the term for the system of trade linking Europe, Africa, and the Americas?
What system emerged after Merchant Capitalism, where investors became owners of industries and reinvested profits?
What is Imperialism?
Which ideologies emerged in Italy and Germany, respectively, rooted in totalitarianism after World War I?
What international organisation was formed after World War II to ensure global peace and security?
Discuss the features of Mercantilism, the economic policy dominant during the age of exploration.
Analyse the major changes that took place as part of the Industrial Revolution (1780-1850).
Chapter 6: Mass Movement for Freedom
When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?
Where did Gandhiji intervene in 1917 regarding the issues faced by indigo cultivators?
Which repressive law, implemented in 1919, allowed anyone to be arrested without a warrant and jailed without trial?
Who led the Khilafat movement in India?
What was the book written by Gandhiji and published in 1909 where he explained that British rule existed due to Indian cooperation?
What event caused Gandhiji to stop the Non-Cooperation Movement on February 5, 1922?
What political party was formed in 1923 by leaders such as C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru to utilise legislative assemblies to voice political dissent?
What event made the Congress demand complete independence for the first time?
Who led the volunteer force called the Khudai Khidmatgar in Northwestern India during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
When was the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed?
Explain the methods adopted during the Non-Cooperation Movement (launched under the joint leadership of the Khilafat Committee and the Indian National Congress).
Describe the pivotal reasons that made the Lahore Congress (December 1929) a milestone in India's freedom struggle.
Chapter 7: The Glimpses of Free India
Who was assigned the task of drawing the detailed boundary map for the partition of India?
In which year did East Pakistan gain independence and become Bangladesh?
Who successfully accomplished the mission of integrating the princely states into the Indian Union?
What was the financial aid provided by the government to ruling families of princely states who acceded to the Indian Union?
Which territories were liberated from Portuguese control in 1961 through military operation?
Who undertook a hunger strike and subsequently died in 1952, leading to the formation of the state of Andhra?
Based on the State Reorganisation Bill passed in 1956, how many linguistic states and Union Territories were formed on November 1, 1956?
Which iron and steel industry was established in collaboration with the Soviet Union?
When did India conduct its first nuclear test ('Smiling Buddha')?
When was the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) established?
Describe the major challenges faced by India immediately after gaining independence in 1947.
Explain the Panchsheel Principles formulated based on India's foreign policy.
Chapter 8: Democracy An Indian Experience
When was the Election Commission formed for the establishment of a democratic system?
What is referred to as "one-party dominance" in India?
When was a State of internal emergency declared in India?
Who was the chairman of the Second Backward Classes Commission (Mandal Commission)?
In which year was the Dalit Panthers movement formed?
What Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2005, ensuring the right of citizens to obtain information from public institutions?
What is the idea of dividing people on the basis of religion and creating social conflict?
Who was the chairman of the Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983 to study Centre-State relations?
What constitutional article empowers the President to dismiss democratically elected governments in states (Presidential Rule)?
What Constitutional Amendment passed the Anti-Defection Law in 1985?
Describe the major impacts of the Emergency (declared on June 25, 1975) on Indian democracy.
What is defection, and how did the Indian government attempt to address it?
Chapter 9: Know the Indian Social System
Which sociologist compared society to a living organism and developed the concept of Social Organism?
What is a Social System?
Who was a pioneering sociologist in India who highlighted the distinctive blend of diversity and continuity in the Indian social system?
What is the feature of the caste system that requires marriage within one's own caste?
What Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1955 to prevent the practice and propagation of untouchability?
What does the Preamble to the Indian Constitution state about India regarding religion?
What is the process by which people from different backgrounds are respected for their diversity, leading to a unified and harmonious state?
List and briefly explain the important features of the traditional caste system that existed in Indian society.
Explain the concept of pluralism and how it differs from diversity in the Indian social system.
SOCIAL SCIENCE II -
Chapter-wise Questions
Chapter 1: Weather and Climate
Atmospheric conditions such as temperature, pressure, wind, humidity, and precipitation for a shorter period of time are termed as what?
The average weather condition experienced for a longer period over a larger area is termed as what?
What is the amount of the sun's rays reaching the earth's surface called?
What is the re-radiation of energy in the form of long waves from the earth's surface called?
What is the phenomenon of gradual decrease in temperature at the rate of 6.4º Celsius per kilometre of altitude called?
What is the imaginary line connecting places with equal temperature called?
Which belt is called Doldrum due to the windless zone caused by vertical air currents?
What type of winds are Trade winds, Westerlies, and Polar winds?
What is the phenomenon where the intense rainfall exceeds 10 cm per hour?
Explain how atmospheric pressure is influenced by three key factors: temperature, altitude, and humidity.
Describe the major types of rainfall based on their formation process.
Chapter 2: Climatic Regions and Climate Change
What is an extensive geographical area in which similar climate characteristics are observed?
What are the tropical grasslands in Southern Brazil known as?
In which region is the highest recorded temperature (58° C) mentioned?
Which region is characterized by dry summers and humid winters, with rain during the winter?
What is the climate of the Taiga region characterized by?
Why is the region between 55° and 70° in the Northern Hemisphere called Taiga?
What is the term for a long-term shift in weather patterns and temperatures caused by human activity or natural variability?
The increase in atmospheric temperature caused by excess greenhouse gases is called what?
Which international agreement aims to reduce global warming and help nations cope with the harmful effects of climate change (signed in 2015)?
Describe the climatic characteristics and vegetation of the Savanna Climatic Region.
Identify the natural and anthropogenic causes of climate change.
Chapter 3: From The Rainy Forests to The Land of Permafrost
What is the forest found in the Amazon Basin called?
Why are the tropical rainforests often referred to as the 'Lungs of the World'?
What are animals that spend most of their lives in trees called?
Which two countries are leading globally in rubber cultivation, due to favourable climate?
What are the villages in the equatorial regions of Malaysia called?
What is the disease found in equatorial rainforests spread through Tse Tse flies?
What are the strong snowstorms that blow over the Tundra region called?
What are the dome-shaped, temporary shelters made out of blocks of snow by Eskimos called?
Describe the unique climatic features and natural vegetation of the Equatorial Climatic Region.
Explain the challenges faced by the equatorial climatic region that hinder its development.
Chapter 4: Consumer: Rights and Protection
What is the satisfaction gained through consumption considered to be?
Which economic theory states that the satisfaction derived by the consumer can be quantified using cardinal numbers?
What is the change in total utility that occurs when one additional unit of a commodity is consumed called?
When did the Consumer Protection Act 2019 come into force?
What is the full form of the CCPA established under the Consumer Protection Act 2019?
Which Act ensures food security?
Which is the highest apex body of Consumer Courts in India?
What mark is issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) to ensure the quality of industrial products?
List the major rights guaranteed to a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act.
What are the key features of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implemented in India?
Chapter 5: Money and Economy
What is the total utility a person receives when they continuously consume several units of a particular commodity?
When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?
What institution prints and issues coins and one rupee notes in India?
What is the RBI measure used to control credit, which is the amount of money banks must keep as reserves with the Reserve Bank?
What is the difference between the interest paid to depositors and the interest charged from borrowers by banks?
What system enables real-time money transfers between bank accounts using a mobile application?
What are non-banking financial institutions (like KSFE) prohibited from doing, unlike banks?
Which concept refers to the amount of money the banks must keep as reserves with the Reserve Bank out of the money they receive as deposits?
Explain the four general functions of money in an economy.
Describe the main objectives behind the nationalization of banks in India.
Chapter 6: The Changing Earth
What are the movements that cause the ups and downs on the surface of the Earth called?
What is the continuous cyclic movement of magma in the mantle, driven by thermal variations, called?
What processes cause the upliftment of a large portion of the Earth's crust and minimal deformation?
What are the processes that cause the formation of mountains?
The point inside the Earth from which earthquake energy is released is called the focus; what is the point on the Earth's surface directly above this point called?
What is the instrument that records earthquake waves called?
What are the processes that are collectively known as exogenic movements?
What is the gradual decrease in temperature at the rate of 6.4º Celsius per kilometre of altitude called?
What phenomenon is locally known as 'Urulpottal' in the hilly regions of Kerala?
Explain Volcanism and list the three classifications of volcanoes based on the nature of eruption and surface formations.
Outline the precautionary measures and mitigation strategies that can be adopted to reduce the intensity of disasters caused by earthquakes and tsunamis.
Chapter 7: Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation
What is Economic Growth?
How is Per Capita Income (PCI) calculated?
Based on the World Bank classification, what is the PCI range for a 'Lower middle income' country?
What three factors is the Human Development Index (HDI) calculated based on?
Who is considered the Father of Indian economic planning?
What system of economic control (using licenses, permits, and quotas) existed in India from 1950 to 1990?
What are the three components of the Economic Reform of 1991 (LPG)?
What is Disinvestment in the context of privatization?
What is Knowledge Economy?
Discuss the limitations of using Per Capita Income (PCI) as the sole indicator of economic growth.
Explain the main objectives of the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India).
Chapter 8: Towards Sustainability
What is a Resource?
Resources that are continuously produced or replenished in nature through physical or chemical processes are known as what?
What are the resources found in a region but not yet fully utilized (e.g., wind and solar power potential in Rajasthan)?
What are Earth materials from which one or more metals can be extracted profitably?
What is the largest solar power plant in India?
What is the definition of sustainable development?
What is the naturally occurring, complex liquid mixture often referred to as 'black gold'?
Where is the Maracaibo Basin, rich in oil and natural gas, located?
Explain how fossil fuels (coal and petroleum) are formed and their importance to the economy.
Describe the non-conventional energy sources that must be developed to address the impending energy crisis.
SOCIAL SCIENCE I - Chapter-wise Questions and Answers
Chapter 1: Humanism
1. Which ancient civilisations are known as classical
civilisations?
Answer: Greek and Roman civilisations.
2. What does the word "Renaissance" mean?
Answer:
"Rebirth".
3. In which year did the Ottoman Turks conquer
Constantinople?
Answer: 1453.
4. Who presented a revolutionary argument that the centre of
the universe is not the Earth, but the Sun?
Answer: Nicolaus
Copernicus.
5. Who established the first printing press in Europe (made of
metal and movable type) in the 15th century?
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg.
6. What was the name of the philosophical school of thought
that dominated the Middle Ages and prioritised the divine and the
afterlife?
Answer: Scholasticism.
7. Evaluate the significance of the statement that the
Renaissance was a period of transition from the medieval to the
modern.
Answer: The Renaissance marked a shift from medieval
feudalism to the modern age. It included the growth of urban life,
progress of trade, the rise of nation-states, rationalism, and the
spread of secular values. It introduced a humanistic perspective,
emphasizing human experience and rational inquiry over Christian
theology.
8. Assess the impact of the conquest of Constantinople by the
Turks on the intellectual landscape of Italy.
Answer:
Constantinople was a centre for scholars possessing manuscripts of
ancient Greco-Roman literary works. After the Turkish conquest in
1453, these scholars migrated to Italian cities, bringing their
manuscripts with them. This intensified research and studies,
spreading them beyond universities to libraries, boosting the renewed
interest in classical languages, literature, and antiquity.
Chapter 2: Liberty Equality Fraternity
1. Which dynasty ruled France for decades before the
revolution?
Answer: Bourbon dynasty.
2. Who declared, "I am the State"?
Answer:
Louis XIV.
3. What were the three social divisions in 18th-century
France?
Answer: The Clergy (First Estate), the Nobles
(Second Estate), and the Common People (Third Estate).
4. What was the tax levied by the clergy on common peasants,
requiring one-tenth of the total produce?
Answer: Tithe.
5. Who wrote the famous work, The Social Contract?
Answer:
Rousseau.
6. When did the representatives of the Third Estate declare
themselves the French National Assembly?
Answer: 17 June
1789.
7. What event is considered the beginning of the French
Revolution?
Answer: The fall of the Bastille on July 14,
1789.
8. Who seized power by overthrowing the Directory in
France?
Answer: Napoleon Bonaparte.
9. What was the name of the military operation formulated by
Napoleon to destroy Britain economically by banning trade with
them?
Answer: 'Continental System'.
10. Analyse the social system in 18th-century France.
Answer:
Society was divided into three estates: the Clergy (First Estate) and
the Nobles (Second Estate) enjoyed special privileges and were
exempted from all taxes, while the Commons (Third Estate), consisting
of the majority of the population (middle class, workers, peasants),
lived in poverty and paid various taxes to the king, church, and
nobles. Nobles collected various taxes like Corvée, Banalité,
Banvin, Péage, and Terrage from the common people.
11. Analyse the consequences of the French Revolution.
Answer:
The revolution resulted in the collapse of feudalism and the laws of
the old regime in France. Land owned by the church became the
property of the middle class, and the benefits enjoyed by the nobles
were abolished. It led to the introduction of a unified system of
weights and measures (the metric system). Crucially, it contributed
the concept of modern nationalism, establishing the democratic rule
based on the sovereignty of the people, and influenced independence
struggles in Asia and Africa.
Chapter 3: Social Analysis: Through Sociological Imagination
1. What is Commonsense Knowledge?
Answer: The direct
understanding individuals acquire about the world through personal
experiences, social interactions, and cultural knowledge.
2. What is a Social Problem?
Answer: A problem or
condition that affects a large number of people in society and is
considered undesirable or detrimental.
3. Who introduced the concept of sociological imagination and
in which book?
Answer: Charles Wright Mills, in The
Sociological Imagination (1959).
4. What is Sociology?
Answer: The scientific study of
society, observing, analysing, and interpreting relationships, social
institutions, and structures.
5. What is Social Mobility?
Answer: The movement, or
shifts in an individual or individuals' social status from one status
to another (according to Wallace and Wallace).
6. Who studied the social causes behind suicide and presented
findings in the book Suicide (1897)?
Answer: Emile Durkheim.
7. Explain the key limitations of relying solely on commonsense
knowledge for social analysis.
Answer: Commonsense knowledge
provides only partial knowledge, relies on speculations or practices,
is often not based on scientific observations or studies, and bases
itself on stereotypes. It often fails to discover the real causes
behind complex social problems.
8. Describe the characteristics and benefits of using
sociological imagination.
Answer: Sociological imagination
helps to broaden the individual's perspective by identifying how
other social factors influence individual problems. It enables a
deeper understanding of social issues by identifying the relationship
between individual problems and wider social structures. It
facilitates self-reflection, develops empathy and tolerance by
understanding the social context of others' experiences, develops
critical thinking, and inspires questioning of negative social norms.
Chapter 4: Wealth and the World
1. Which two European nations were the first to embark on
geographical expeditions?
Answer: Portugal and Spain.
2. Which Portuguese sailor reached the Cape of Good Hope in
1488?
Answer: Bartolomeu Dias.
3. Which Italian navigator reached the Bahamas Islands in 1492,
receiving financial aid from Spain?
Answer: Christopher
Columbus.
4. What name was given to the economic policy where nations
aimed to accumulate wealth, primarily gold and silver, through
trade?
Answer: Mercantilism.
5. What is the term for the system of trade linking Europe,
Africa, and the Americas?
Answer: Triangular trade.
6. What system emerged after Merchant Capitalism, where
investors became owners of industries and reinvested profits?
Answer:
Industrial Capitalism.
7. What is Imperialism?
Answer: The practice by which
a country establishes and maintains political, economic, and social
control over regions beyond its own borders.
8. Which ideologies emerged in Italy and Germany, respectively,
rooted in totalitarianism after World War I?
Answer: Fascism
(Italy) and Nazism (Germany).
9. What international organisation was formed after World War
II to ensure global peace and security?
Answer: United
Nations Organization.
10. Discuss the features of Mercantilism, the economic policy
dominant during the age of exploration.
Answer: Mercantilism
focused on acquiring gold and silver, seen as symbols of wealth and
power. The wealth of a nation was measured by the amount of gold and
silver it possessed (Bullion). A key characteristic was the effort to
preserve a nation's wealth by reducing imports and increasing
exports, thereby accumulating wealth from other nations.
11. Analyse the major changes that took place as part of the
Industrial Revolution (1780-1850).
Answer: Production was
mechanised, shifting from cottages to factories. Steam was used as a
source of energy. There was advancement in metallurgy leading to the
production of better tools. Positive outcomes included a rise in
factories, increased production, and new employment opportunities,
leading to urbanisation. Negative outcomes included the exploitation
of labourers, long working hours, low wages for women and children,
and the rise of poverty and slums in busy, polluted cities.
Chapter 6: Mass Movement for Freedom
1. When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South
Africa?
Answer: 1915.
2. Where did Gandhiji intervene in 1917 regarding the issues
faced by indigo cultivators?
Answer: Champaran district,
Bihar.
3. Which repressive law, implemented in 1919, allowed anyone to
be arrested without a warrant and jailed without trial?
Answer:
The Rowlatt Act.
4. Who led the Khilafat movement in India?
Answer:
Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.
5. What was the book written by Gandhiji and published in 1909
where he explained that British rule existed due to Indian
cooperation?
Answer: Hind Swaraj.
6. What event caused Gandhiji to stop the Non-Cooperation
Movement on February 5, 1922?
Answer: Chauri Chaura incident
in Uttar Pradesh.
7. What political party was formed in 1923 by leaders such as
C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru to utilise legislative assemblies to
voice political dissent?
Answer: Swaraj Party.
8. What event made the Congress demand complete independence
for the first time?
Answer: Lahore Congress session in
December 1929.
9. Who led the volunteer force called the Khudai Khidmatgar in
Northwestern India during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (known as the 'Frontier Gandhi').
10. When was the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed?
Answer:
March 5, 1931.
11. Explain the methods adopted during the Non-Cooperation
Movement (launched under the joint leadership of the Khilafat
Committee and the Indian National Congress).
Answer: The
methods included returning titles of honours granted by the British
government, resigning from government jobs, advocates boycotting
British courts, students boycotting British-run schools, and
boycotting foreign goods. Strengthening social harmony, promoting the
use of national products, popularizing khadi, and establishing
national schools were also key programmes.
12. Describe the pivotal reasons that made the Lahore Congress
(December 1929) a milestone in India's freedom struggle.
Answer:
The Congress demanded complete independence (Purna Swaraj) for the
first time. It entrusted Mahatma Gandhi with the responsibility to
launch a mass movement to achieve this goal. The tricolour flag was
formally adopted. January 26, 1930, was subsequently celebrated as
'Independence Day' across India, paving the way for it to be chosen
as Republic Day after independence.
Chapter 7: The Glimpses of Free India
1. Who was assigned the task of drawing the detailed boundary
map for the partition of India?
Answer: Cyril Radcliffe.
2. In which year did East Pakistan gain independence and become
Bangladesh?
Answer: 1971.
3. Who successfully accomplished the mission of integrating the
princely states into the Indian Union?
Answer: Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel and V. P. Menon.
4. What was the financial aid provided by the government to
ruling families of princely states who acceded to the Indian
Union?
Answer: Privy Purse.
5. Which territories were liberated from Portuguese control in
1961 through military operation?
Answer: Goa, Daman, and
Diu.
6. Who undertook a hunger strike and subsequently died in 1952,
leading to the formation of the state of Andhra?
Answer:
Potti Sreeramulu.
7. Based on the State Reorganisation Bill passed in 1956, how
many linguistic states and Union Territories were formed on November
1, 1956?
Answer: 14 linguistic states and 6 Union
Territories.
8. Which iron and steel industry was established in
collaboration with the Soviet Union?
Answer: Bhilai Iron and
Steel Industry (Chhattisgarh) and Bokaro Iron and Steel Industry
(Jharkhand).
9. When did India conduct its first nuclear test ('Smiling
Buddha')?
Answer: May 18, 1974, at Pokhran, Rajasthan.
10. When was the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
established?
Answer: 1969.
11. Describe the major challenges faced by India immediately
after gaining independence in 1947.
Answer: The major
challenges included the rehabilitation of refugees, the integration
of 565 princely states, the incorporation of Portuguese and French
territories, the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis,
strengthening the Indian economy, and formulating an independent
foreign policy.
12. Explain the Panchsheel Principles formulated based on
India's foreign policy.
Answer: The Panchsheel Principles,
signed by Jawaharlal Nehru and Zhou Enlai in 1954, include mutual
respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty,
mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in each other's
internal affairs, observing equality and mutual assistance, and
maintaining peaceful coexistence.
Chapter 8: Democracy An Indian Experience
1. When was the Election Commission formed for the
establishment of a democratic system?
Answer: January 25,
1950.
2. What is referred to as "one-party dominance" in
India?
Answer: The dominance of a single political party
continuously winning with a large majority and retaining power within
the democratic framework.
3. When was a State of internal emergency declared in
India?
Answer: June 25, 1975.
4. Who was the chairman of the Second Backward Classes
Commission (Mandal Commission)?
Answer: B. P. Mandal.
5. In which year was the Dalit Panthers movement
formed?
Answer: 1972 in Maharashtra.
6. What Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2005,
ensuring the right of citizens to obtain information from public
institutions?
Answer: Right to Information Act (RTI).
7. What is the idea of dividing people on the basis of religion
and creating social conflict?
Answer: Communalism.
8. Who was the chairman of the Sarkaria Commission, appointed
in 1983 to study Centre-State relations?
Answer: Justice R.
S. Sarkaria.
9. What constitutional article empowers the President to
dismiss democratically elected governments in states (Presidential
Rule)?
Answer: Article 356.
10. What Constitutional Amendment passed the Anti-Defection Law
in 1985?
Answer: 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
11. Describe the major impacts of the Emergency (declared on
June 25, 1975) on Indian democracy.
Answer: The Emergency
abolished the federal system of the constitution, concentrated power
in the union government, and froze fundamental rights. It abolished
the court's power of judicial review. Opposition party leaders were
imprisoned without trial, and censorship was imposed on newspapers
and news. Economic restrictions were imposed.
12. What is defection, and how did the Indian government
attempt to address it?
Answer: Defection refers to an
elected representative, who won the election as a candidate of one
party, abandoning that party or joining another party. This betrays
the trust of voters and poses a challenge to democracy. To prevent
this, the Anti-Defection Law was passed by Parliament in 1985 through
the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
Chapter 9: Know the Indian Social System
1. Which sociologist compared society to a living organism and
developed the concept of Social Organism?
Answer: Herbert
Spencer.
2. What is a Social System?
Answer: A systematic
arrangement of social interactions formed when various parts of
society, including social institutions, work interdependently and
perform jointly to ensure stability, growth, and order.
3. Who was a pioneering sociologist in India who highlighted
the distinctive blend of diversity and continuity in the Indian
social system?
Answer: G. S. Ghurye.
4. What is the feature of the caste system that requires
marriage within one's own caste?
Answer: Endogamy.
5. What Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1955 to
prevent the practice and propagation of untouchability?
Answer:
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (originally the
Untouchability (Offences) Act).
6. What does the Preamble to the Indian Constitution state
about India regarding religion?
Answer: India is a secular
state.
7. What is the process by which people from different
backgrounds are respected for their diversity, leading to a unified
and harmonious state?
Answer: National Integration.
8. List and briefly explain the important features of the
traditional caste system that existed in Indian society.
Answer:
Features include Social Hierarchy, where members were ranked into
layers based on caste, determining their role and status. Division of
Labour involved specific hereditary occupations allocated to each
caste, restricting occupational mobility. Social Control and Order
required strict adherence to caste norms, based on purity and
pollution (leading to untouchability). Restrictions on Marriage
promoted endogamy. This system resulted in Inequality and
Marginalisation, denying lower castes access to education, land, and
resources.
9. Explain the concept of pluralism and how it differs from
diversity in the Indian social system.
Answer: Diversity
refers simply to the presence of differences within society
(cultural, religious, linguistic, etc.). Pluralism, however, implies
that various diverse elements coexist. While diversity may lack
mutual relations or respect, pluralism promotes communication,
fostering mutual respect, love, and friendship, ensuring that
diversity contributes to unity and coexistence, rather than division.
Pluralism is a conscious activity that must be intentionally
cultivated.
SOCIAL SCIENCE II - Chapter-wise Questions and Answers
Chapter 1: Weather and Climate
1. Atmospheric conditions such as temperature, pressure, wind,
humidity, and precipitation for a shorter period of time are termed
as what?
Answer: Weather.
2. The average weather condition experienced for a longer
period over a larger area is termed as what?
Answer:
Climate.
3. What is the amount of the sun's rays reaching the earth's
surface called?
Answer: Insolation.
4. What is the re-radiation of energy in the form of long waves
from the earth's surface called?
Answer: Terrestrial
radiation.
5. What is the phenomenon of gradual decrease in temperature at
the rate of 6.4º Celsius per kilometre of altitude called?
Answer:
Normal Lapse Rate.
6. What is the imaginary line connecting places with equal
temperature called?
Answer: Isotherms.
7. Which belt is called Doldrum due to the windless zone caused
by vertical air currents?
Answer: Equatorial Low Pressure
Belt.
8. What type of winds are Trade winds, Westerlies, and Polar
winds?
Answer: Permanent winds (or prevailing
winds/planetary winds).
9. What is the phenomenon where the intense rainfall exceeds 10
cm per hour?
Answer: Cloud burst.
10. Explain how atmospheric pressure is influenced by three key
factors: temperature, altitude, and humidity.
Answer:
Temperature: Air expands on heating and rises up, forming
low-pressure regions; rising air cools and subsides, forming
high-pressure regions. Altitude: Atmospheric pressure gradually
decreases with increasing altitude because the density of atmospheric
gases decreases. Humidity: As humidity increases, water molecules
displace heavier gases (like nitrogen and oxygen); since humid air is
lighter than dry air, atmospheric pressure becomes low.
11. Describe the major types of rainfall based on their
formation process.
Answer: Orographic rainfall (Relief
rainfall): Occurs when moisture-laden winds are raised along mountain
slopes, leading to condensation and cloud formation along the
windward slopes. Convectional Rainfall: Occurs due to the convection
process, where intense heating causes air to rise, condense, and
precipitate (common diurnal phenomena in summer/equatorial regions).
Cyclonic Rainfall (Frontal Rainfall): Occurs in cyclonic systems
where warm and cold air meet, causing the warm air to rise, leading
to condensation and rainfall.
Chapter 2: Climatic Regions and Climate Change
1. What is an extensive geographical area in which similar
climate characteristics are observed?
Answer: A climatic
region.
2. What are the tropical grasslands in Southern Brazil known
as?
Answer: Campos.
3. In which region is the highest recorded temperature (58° C)
mentioned?
Answer: Al Aziziya, in the Sahara desert.
4. Which region is characterized by dry summers and humid
winters, with rain during the winter?
Answer: Mediterranean
Climatic Region.
5. What is the climate of the Taiga region characterized
by?
Answer: Short summers and long winters.
6. Why is the region between 55° and 70° in the Northern
Hemisphere called Taiga?
Answer: Because of the abundance of
coniferous trees (Taiga is the Russian word for 'coniferous trees').
7. What is the term for a long-term shift in weather patterns
and temperatures caused by human activity or natural
variability?
Answer: Climate change.
8. The increase in atmospheric temperature caused by excess
greenhouse gases is called what?
Answer: Global warming.
9. Which international agreement aims to reduce global warming
and help nations cope with the harmful effects of climate change
(signed in 2015)?
Answer: Paris Agreement.
10. Describe the climatic characteristics and vegetation of the
Savanna Climatic Region.
Answer: The Savanna region has hot
and humid summers, and cool and dry winters. The annual average
temperature is between 21° C and 32° C, and it receives annual
rainfall of 25 cm to 125 cm. The dominant vegetation consists of
deciduous trees and tall grasses. As one moves closer to deserts,
short bushes and thorny forests are seen.
11. Identify the natural and anthropogenic causes of climate
change.
Answer: Natural causes include volcanic eruption and
ocean currents. Natural climate changes throughout Earth's history
also include Ice ages and inter glacial periods. Anthropogenic causes
(human activities) include deforestation, oil mining,
industrialization, land use change, urbanization, and the burning of
fossil fuels, industrial effluents, and solid waste, which result in
excess greenhouse gases.
Chapter 3: From The Rainy Forests to The Land of Permafrost
1. What is the forest found in the Amazon Basin called?
Answer:
Selvas.
2. Why are the tropical rainforests often referred to as the
'Lungs of the World'?
Answer: Because they absorb carbon
dioxide and produce oxygen at a massive rate.
3. What are animals that spend most of their lives in trees
called?
Answer: Arboreal animals.
4. Which two countries are leading globally in rubber
cultivation, due to favourable climate?
Answer: Malaysia and
Indonesia.
5. What are the villages in the equatorial regions of Malaysia
called?
Answer: Kampongs.
6. What is the disease found in equatorial rainforests spread
through Tse Tse flies?
Answer: Sleeping sickness.
7. What are the strong snowstorms that blow over the Tundra
region called?
Answer: Blizzards.
8. What are the dome-shaped, temporary shelters made out of
blocks of snow by Eskimos called?
Answer: Igloo.
9. Describe the unique climatic features and natural vegetation
of the Equatorial Climatic Region.
Answer: The equatorial
climate is characterized by high temperatures and high rainfall
throughout the year. The mean monthly and annual temperature is
around 27° C, and the region experiences no winter. Rainfall is
heavy (175 cm to 250 cm annually), well-distributed, and often occurs
as convectional rain in the afternoons. The high temperature and
abundant rainfall lead to luxuriant vegetation, forming tropical
evergreen rainforests. Trees form distinct canopies at different
levels.
10. Explain the challenges faced by the equatorial climatic
region that hinder its development.
Answer: The hot and wet
climate encourages the widespread occurrence of diseases, as germs
and bacteria are easily transmitted through moist air, and encourages
the spread of insects and pests harmful to crops. Thick, luxuriant
forest hinders development, making it difficult and expensive to
construct and maintain roads and railway lines. The dense forest and
difficulty in transporting heavy logs hinder commercial lumbering.
Livestock rearing is limited due to insect attacks and the absence of
grazing land.
Chapter 4: Consumer: Rights and Protection
1. What is the satisfaction gained through consumption
considered to be?
Answer: Utility of goods and services.
2. Which economic theory states that the satisfaction derived
by the consumer can be quantified using cardinal numbers?
Answer:
Cardinal Utility Theory.
3. What is the change in total utility that occurs when one
additional unit of a commodity is consumed called?
Answer:
Marginal utility (MU).
4. When did the Consumer Protection Act 2019 come into
force?
Answer: 20 July 2020.
5. What is the full form of the CCPA established under the
Consumer Protection Act 2019?
Answer: The Central Consumer
Protection Authority.
6. Which Act ensures food security?
Answer: FSSAI (or
Food Safety Act, 2006).
7. Which is the highest apex body of Consumer Courts in
India?
Answer: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
Commission (NCDRC).
8. What mark is issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
to ensure the quality of industrial products?
Answer: ISI
mark.
9. List the major rights guaranteed to a consumer under the
Consumer Protection Act.
Answer: The rights guaranteed
include the Right to Safety (protection from goods and services that
pose a threat to life and property), Right to Choose (goods and
services at competitive prices), Right to Know (quality, quantity,
purity, and price), Rights to seek Redressal (from unfair trade
practices), and Right to Consumer Education (to acquire knowledge and
skills to be informed).
10. What are the key features of the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) implemented in India?
Answer: GST came into effect on
1 July 2017, through the 101st Amendment to the Constitution. Its aim
is to make the economy transparent by unifying various taxes and
implementing the concept of "One Nation, One Tax". The
structure ensures the state government receives 50% (SGST) and the
Central Government receives 50% (CGST) of the tax paid.
Chapter 5: Money and Economy
1. What is the total utility a person receives when they
continuously consume several units of a particular commodity?
Answer:
Total Utility (TU).
2. When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
established?
Answer: 1 April 1935.
3. What institution prints and issues coins and one rupee notes
in India?
Answer: The Ministry of Finance, Government of
India.
4. What is the RBI measure used to control credit, which is the
amount of money banks must keep as reserves with the Reserve
Bank?
Answer: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
5. What is the difference between the interest paid to
depositors and the interest charged from borrowers by banks?
Answer:
Spread.
6. What system enables real-time money transfers between bank
accounts using a mobile application?
Answer: Universal
Payment Interface (UPI).
7. What are non-banking financial institutions (like KSFE)
prohibited from doing, unlike banks?
Answer: Cannot accept
savings and deposits from the public.
8. Which concept refers to the amount of money the banks must
keep as reserves with the Reserve Bank out of the money they receive
as deposits?
Answer: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
9. Explain the four general functions of money in an
economy.
Answer: Medium of Exchange: Money is crucial for
making transactions, as goods and services can be sold for money,
which is then used to buy needed items. Measure of Value: The value
of all goods can be expressed in monetary terms, making it easy to
compare the values of different goods (its value is its purchasing
power). Store of Value: Money is generally acceptable, allowing
individuals to store the value of any good (even perishable items) as
money or assets for future use. Means of Deferred Payments: Money
facilitates settling financial transactions at a later date, which is
helpful for both short and long-term business transactions (borrowing
and lending).
10. Describe the main objectives behind the nationalization of
banks in India.
Answer: The main objectives were to expand
banking facilities into rural areas, provide credit to farmers at
lower rates, ensure the equitable distribution of credit, and prevent
the concentration of economic power in the hands of a few people.
Chapter 6: The Changing Earth
1. What are the movements that cause the ups and downs on the
surface of the Earth called?
Answer: Earth movements.
2. What is the continuous cyclic movement of magma in the
mantle, driven by thermal variations, called?
Answer:
Convection current.
3. What processes cause the upliftment of a large portion of
the Earth's crust and minimal deformation?
Answer:
Epeirogenic movements.
4. What are the processes that cause the formation of
mountains?
Answer: Orogenic movements.
5. The point inside the Earth from which earthquake energy is
released is called the focus; what is the point on the Earth's
surface directly above this point called?
Answer: Epicentre.
6. What is the instrument that records earthquake waves
called?
Answer: Seismograph.
7. What are the processes that are collectively known as
exogenic movements?
Answer: Weathering, erosion,
transportation, deposition, and mass wasting.
8. What is the gradual decrease in temperature at the rate of
6.4º Celsius per kilometre of altitude called?
Answer:
Normal Lapse Rate.
9. What phenomenon is locally known as 'Urulpottal' in the
hilly regions of Kerala?
Answer: Debris flow/Landslide.
10. Explain Volcanism and list the three classifications of
volcanoes based on the nature of eruption and surface
formations.
Answer: Volcanism is the process that includes
the formation and movement of magma and other pyroclastic materials
toward the surface, their eruption through holes and cracks,
associated explosions, lava flow, solidification of magma, and the
formation of various igneous landforms. Based on eruption and
formations, volcanoes are classified as shield volcanoes, composite
volcanoes, and calderas.
11. Outline the precautionary measures and mitigation
strategies that can be adopted to reduce the intensity of disasters
caused by earthquakes and tsunamis.
Answer: For earthquakes,
it is necessary to adopt precise preventive measures and raise
awareness. For tsunamis, if the sea level suddenly goes down, it
should be considered a warning, and people should run away from the
shore immediately to move to higher ground. If caught in a tsunami,
one should try to save oneself by holding onto something that can
float. Tsunami warning systems, such as DART stations (Deep-ocean
Assessment and Reporting of Tsunamis), are used for detection and
monitoring.
Chapter 7: Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation
1. What is Economic Growth?
Answer: The increase in a
country's Gross Domestic Product compared to the previous year.
2. How is Per Capita Income (PCI) calculated?
Answer:
National Income (NI) divided by Population.
3. Based on the World Bank classification, what is the PCI
range for a 'Lower middle income' country?
Answer: 1146 to
4515 US Dollars ($).
4. What three factors is the Human Development Index (HDI)
calculated based on?
Answer: Life expectancy; Literacy and
gross school enrollment rate; Per capita income.
5. Who is considered the Father of Indian economic
planning?
Answer: M Visvesvaraya.
6. What system of economic control (using licenses, permits,
and quotas) existed in India from 1950 to 1990?
Answer: LPQ
(Licenses, Permits, and Quotas).
7. What are the three components of the Economic Reform of 1991
(LPG)?
Answer: Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization.
8. What is Disinvestment in the context of
privatization?
Answer: The sale of the government's
investment or capital in a public sector enterprise to the private
sector.
9. What is Knowledge Economy?
Answer: An economic
system that thrives by incorporating innovative ideas in the
production, distribution, and use of knowledge and information.
10. Discuss the limitations of using Per Capita Income (PCI) as
the sole indicator of economic growth.
Answer: PCI is only
an average income. It does not reflect information about the
distribution and inequality of wealth. Since it is calculated based
on national income, it is affected by the limitations of calculating
national income. Furthermore, factors that enhance the quality of
life are not included in the scope of the PCI index.
11. Explain the main objectives of the NITI Aayog (National
Institution for Transforming India).
Answer: The main
objectives are to create a vision for India's development priorities
and plans, to promote sustainable development and inclusive growth,
to promote economic growth through innovation, entrepreneurship, and
job creation, and to collaborate with international organizations and
countries to leverage global diversity and resources.
Chapter 8: Towards Sustainability
1. What is a Resource?
Answer: Anything that satisfies
human needs and occurs naturally, is technologically feasible, and
culturally acceptable.
2. Resources that are continuously produced or replenished in
nature through physical or chemical processes are known as
what?
Answer: Renewable Resources.
3. What are the resources found in a region but not yet fully
utilized (e.g., wind and solar power potential in Rajasthan)?
Answer:
Potential resources.
4. What are Earth materials from which one or more metals can
be extracted profitably?
Answer: Ores.
5. What is the largest solar power plant in India?
Answer:
Bhadla Solar Park, in Bhadla, Rajasthan.
6. What is the definition of sustainable development?
Answer:
Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
7. What is the naturally occurring, complex liquid mixture
often referred to as 'black gold'?
Answer: Petroleum.
8. Where is the Maracaibo Basin, rich in oil and natural gas,
located?
Answer: Northwest Venezuela (South American
country).
9. Explain how fossil fuels (coal and petroleum) are formed and
their importance to the economy.
Answer: Fossil fuels are
formed from the fossilized remains of ancient plants and animals over
millions of years. Coal is used as a fuel in metallurgy, as a
chemical raw material, and is a major source for thermal power
generation. Petroleum is the primary source of energy, used to
extract products like petrol, jet fuel, and lubricants, and is
essential for the petrochemical industry, producing materials like
fertilizers and synthetic fibers.
10. Describe the non-conventional energy sources that must be
developed to address the impending energy crisis.
Answer:
Nations must rely on non-conventional energy sources that are
abundantly available. These include Solar Energy, Wind energy
(converts kinetic energy into electricity), Geothermal Energy
(converts heat released from the Earth's interior), Tidal Energy
(uses the movement of ocean tides), and Bioenergy (produced from
organic matter and waste).
