IX SS Model Questions
Set 1: Palaeolithic Social Structure
1. Identify the characteristic description of the basic social units during the Palaeolithic Age. A) They were agrarian villages. B) They were large settled communities. C) Bands were the basic units of society, bound by blood relation, usually fewer than hundred members. Answer: C
Set 2: Defining the Chalcolithic Age 2. What defines the Chalcolithic Age? A) It is the period when only copper tools were used. B) It is the period when bronze, an alloy of copper and tin, was used. C) It is the period when copper tools were used along with stone tools. Answer: C
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Sequence of Ages Arrange the following ages in chronological order from oldest to newest:
1. Iron Age
2. Palaeolithic Age
3. Mesolithic Age
4. Bronze Age A) 2, 3, 4, 1 (Palaeolithic, Mesolithic, Bronze, Iron) Answer: A
Set 2: Matching Neolithic Sites to Countries Match the Neolithic centre with its country:
1. Jarmo
2. Mehrgarh
3. Jericho a. Indian Subcontinent (now in Pakistan) b. Kurdish Hills of Iraq c. Mentioned as a site but country not explicitly named in surrounding text A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Palaeolithic vs. Mesolithic Tools What is the key difference between Palaeolithic tools and Mesolithic tools? A) Palaeolithic tools were polished, while Mesolithic tools were rough. B) Palaeolithic tools were always made of bone, while Mesolithic tools were made of stone. C) Mesolithic tools (microliths) were smaller tools than the ones used in the Palaeolithic Age, which were rough stone tools. Answer: C
Set 2: Early Vedic Period vs. Later Vedic Period Economy Identify the difference in the primary economic focus between the Early Vedic Period and the Later Vedic Period. A) Early Vedic Period had a Pastoral economy, while the Later Vedic Period gave importance to Agriculture. B) Early Vedic Period used iron extensively, while the Later Vedic Period did not. C) Early Vedic Period had a rigid Varna system, while the Later Vedic Period had a simple tribal society. Answer: A
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Role of Bronze in Urbanization Explain the significance of the Bronze Age in the context of human settlement and economy. A) It was the period when humans learned agriculture. B) It marked the beginning of using metals along with stone tools. C) Urbanization began in the Bronze Age, characterized by a region becoming densely populated where the majority earned a livelihood through non-agrarian activities, such as crafts and trade. Answer: C
Set 2: The Decline of Women's Status in the Vedic Age Analyze the change in the social status of women from the Early Vedic Period to the Later Vedic Period. A) Women gained a higher social status in the Later Vedic Period due to agrarian progress. B) Women had a Comparatively higher social status during the Early Vedic Period, but this status declined in the Later Vedic Period. C) Women maintained a high status throughout both periods. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Tools and Subsistence Elucidate the stages of tool use development in the Palaeolithic Age related to primitive human subsistence. A) Fashioning, Standardisation, and Use of bones. B) Utilisation (using available stones without changing shape), Fashioning (changing shape according to need), and Standardisation (tools for each purpose). C) Use of microliths, flake tools, and core tools. Answer: B
Set 2: Defining Core and Flakes Define 'core' and 'flake' in the context of primitive stone tool making. A) Core is the rough outer layer, and flake is the smooth inner part. B) Flake is the largest piece, and core is the smallest piece. C) When a piece of stone is broken into two or more pieces, the largest piece is called the core and the smaller pieces are called flakes. Answer: C
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: The Advantage of Copper over Stone Analyze the primary advantages of copper tools over stone tools when humans entered the Metal Age. A) Copper was easier to find than stone. B) Copper was only useful for weapons, while stone was used for carving. C) Copper offered durability and could be changed into a suitable shape and form, unlike stone. Answer: C
Set 2: Reasons for Neolithic Changes Analyze the factors that led humans to begin agriculture and domestication of animals during the Neolithic Age. A) Improved communication and the decline of the Mesolithic Age. B) The widespread use of metal tools and the discovery of bronze. C) Population growth, an increase in human settlements, shortage of food products, and change in technology. Answer: C
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: The Fertile Crescent Identify and describe the significance of the region marked in the shape of a crescent on Map 2. A) It is the Sapta Sindhu region where the Aryans settled. B) It is known as the ‘Fertile Crescent,’ which archaeologists say is the area where agriculture began, based on available evidence. C) It is the Ganga basin, known for the emergence of new ideas in the 6th century BCE. Answer: B
Set 2: Varna System Identification Identify and describe the roles of the four Varnas mentioned in the sources. A) Kshatriyas (traders), Brahmins (warriors), Vaishyas (priests), Sudras (servants). B) Brahmins (engaged in priestly rites), Kshatriyas (governed and guarded the kingdom), Vaishyas (engaged in agriculture and trade), and Sudras (served the other three sections). C) Rajanya, Purohita, Jana, and Gramani. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Why the Stone Age is Named Justify why the phase of human history (Palaeolithic, Mesolithic, Neolithic) is called the Stone Age. A) Because humans lived in stone caves during this period. B) Because humans used stones to make tools and weapons during that period. C) Because stone carvings and paintings were the major form of communication. Answer: B
Set 2: Neolithic Progress as the Basis of Modern Life Justify why the changes during the Neolithic Age are considered the basis of the progress humans have achieved today. A) Because cave paintings reached their peak during this age. B) Because permanent settlements, agrarian villages, surplus production, introduction of pottery, and specialization in occupations (like weaving and pottery making) originated during this age. C) Because iron tools were introduced, leading to widespread forest clearing. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Ideas and Early States
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Factors Leading to New Ideas in Ganga Basin (6th Century BCE)
1. Which three factors helped in the formation of material conditions leading to new ideas in the Ganga basin during the 6th century BCE? A) Decline of agriculture, decline of trade, and rise of the Varna system. B) Increased rituals, nomadic life, and lack of iron tools. C) Widespread use of iron tools, increased agricultural production, and growth of trade and cities. Answer: C
Set 2: Important Ideas of Asoka Dhamma 2. Which three ideas are included in 'Asoka Dhamma'? A) Strict adherence to the Varna system, collecting high taxes, and conquering Kalinga. B) Be tolerant to other religions, respect elders and teachers, and be kind to slaves and the sick. C) Promoting severe asceticism, following the Triratnas, and denying the Vedas. Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Religious Concepts and Founders Identify the correct pairing of the religion/school of thought and its founder/promulgator. A) Buddhism : Vardhamana Mahavira B) Jainism : Vardhamana Mahavira C) Materialism : Gautama Buddha Answer: B
Set 2: Magadhan Kings and Dynasties Identify the dynasty associated with the kings Bimbisara and Ajatashatru. A) Nanda Dynasty B) Sishunaga Dynasty C) Haryanka Dynasty Answer: C
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Core Principles of Jainism
1. Identify the concept Mahavira proposed for attaining 'Moksha' (salvation). A) The Eight Fold Path (Ashtangamarga) B) The ‘Triratnas’ (Right Belief, Right Knowledge, and Right Action) C) The Middle Path (rejecting severe asceticism and luxurious living) Answer: B
Set 2: Features of Greek City-States 2. Identify two characteristic features of the Greek city-states. A) They were massive empires governed by centralized monarchies. B) They consisted of a city and surrounding agricultural villages, often with capitals located on high hills. C) They were governed by democracy where all residents, including slaves, were citizens. Answer: B
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Buddha's Life Events (Chronological Order) Arrange the following events in the life of Gautama Buddha in chronological order:
1. Attained Nirvana at Kushinara
2. Born in Lumbini
3. Delivered first sermon at Sarnath
4. Attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (Born in Lumbini, Attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, Delivered first sermon at Sarnath, Attained Nirvana at Kushinara) Answer: A
Set 2: Matching Maurya Provincial Capitals Match the Maurya provincial capital with its location:
1. Takshashila
2. Ujjayini
3. Suvarnagiri a. Southern province b. Western province c. Northern province A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Mahajanapadas vs. Greek City-States (Formation) How did the political entities of the Mahajanapadas of India differ fundamentally from the Greek city-states based on their formation? A) Greek city-states were formed through agricultural surplus, whereas Mahajanapadas were formed by villages standing together for security. B) Mahajanapadas evolved from settled tribal communities (Janapadas) due to surplus agriculture and the need for regulation; Greek city-states were formed by villages standing together for security and governance, defined by natural boundaries. C) Both Mahajanapadas and Greek city-states universally adopted democracy as their form of governance. Answer: B
Set 2: Early Vedic vs. Later Vedic Society (Varna System) Compare the Varna system in the Early Vedic Period versus the Later Vedic Period. A) The Varna system became weaker in the Later Vedic Period. B) In the Early Vedic Period, the Varna system became stronger. C) The society consisted of many tribes and simple rituals in the Early Vedic Period, whereas the Varna system became stronger and rituals became complicated and expensive in the Later Vedic Period. Answer: C
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Second Urbanisation Explain what historians refer to as the ‘second urbanisation’ and its background. A) The spread of the Harappan Civilization. B) The growth of trade and the development of towns in the Janapadas, driven by agricultural surplus production, leading to the formation of Mahajanapadas. C) The rise of the Maurya Kingdom and its capital Pataliputra. Answer: B
Set 2: Materialism Philosophy Analyze the core tenets of the Materialism school of thought promulgated by Ajita Kesakambalin. A) They emphasized the importance of the Vedic rituals for achieving salvation. B) They opined that all religious practices are meaningless, that there is neither Ihaloka nor Paraloka, and that matter dissolves into four elements upon death. C) They focused on the Eight Fold Path for the destruction of sorrow. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Importance of Cattle (Buddhism/Jainism) Elucidate why the principle of 'Ahimsa' (non-violence) in Buddhism and Jainism was suitable to the new conditions in the Ganga basin during the 6th century BCE. A) Ahimsa ensured that Brahmins retained their high status. B) In the agricultural economy, cattle were needed for cultivation and transportation of goods; Vedic rituals involving widespread animal killing adversely affected this economy, making Ahimsa appealing. C) Ahimsa promoted the use of iron tools. Answer: B
Set 2: Vajji Administration (Digha Nikaya) Elucidate the key administrative feature of Vajji (Mahajanapada) based on the description in the Digha Nikaya. A) It was ruled by a powerful, centralized king who levied high taxes (Bali and Bhaga). B) Decisions were taken jointly through discussions, elders were respected, women lived freely, and places of worship and people of different faiths were respected. C) It had a standing army commanded by the Senani. Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Rise of Magadha Analyze the geographical factors that ensured Magadhan victory and dominance over other Mahajanapadas. A) Magadha was located far from major rivers, making it secure. B) Magadha was a fertile region with good rainfall, large deposits of iron ore (for tools/weapons), easily available elephants (for war), and the Ganga/its tributaries provided easy transportation. C) Magadha was governed purely by democratic principles (like Vajji). Answer: B
Set 2: Athenian Citizenship Restrictions Analyze why the Athenian system of government 2500 years ago was different from modern democracy, based on citizenship. A) All residents were considered citizens, unlike modern democracy. B) Only males over the age of 30, except slaves, were considered citizens; women, artisans, and foreigners working as traders were not considered citizens. C) Citizens did not form a committee to take decisions. Answer: B
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Description of Stupas Identify and describe stupas in the context of Buddhism. A) Monastic orders (Sanghas) formed to propagate Buddhism. B) Buildings built on sites where the physical remains of the Buddha or objects used by the Buddha were buried, typically semi-circular in shape and rich in carvings (e.g., Sanchi and Sarnath stupas). C) Temples dedicated to the Tirthankaras. Answer: B
Set 2: Definition of Janapada Identify and define the term 'Janapada' as used in the Later Vedas period. A) Mahajanapadas, the 16 largest states. B) A place where people were settled, formed after burning forests to create farmlands and residential areas, leading to permanent settlement. C) The region of Sapta Sindhu. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Why Buddha's Teachings Gained Support Justify why Buddha’s concept of ‘Ahimsa’ (non-violence) was suitable to the new socio-economic conditions in the Ganga basin. A) Because the Vaishyas disliked the traditional Varna system. B) Because Ahimsa prevented the killing of cattle, which were essential for agriculture (tilling land) and transportation, thereby supporting the newly emerging agricultural economy. C) Because the use of Pali language made his teachings accessible only to the Gahapathis. Answer: B
Set 2: Purpose of Ashoka Dhamma Justify the primary purpose of 'Asoka Dhamma' (Dharma) according to eminent historian Romila Thapar. A) To enforce the Varna system strictly across the empire. B) To encourage severe asceticism among his subjects. C) To provide a political philosophy suitable for the administration of a vast country and for keeping various social groups in harmony. Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Land Grants and the Indian Society
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Important Rulers of the Gupta Dynasty
1. Identify three important kings of the Gupta dynasty (excluding the founder Srigupta). A) Bimbisara, Ajatashatru, Dhanananda B) Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, Chandragupta II C) Pulakesi II, Rajendra Chola I, Rajaraja Chola Answer: B
Set 2: Characteristics of Dravidian Architecture 2. Which three characteristic features are associated with Dravidian temple architecture? A) Nagara style, Vasara style, and rock-cut stone material. B) Gopuras (towers), Vimana (the top portion), and Sreekovil/Garbhagriha (Sanctum Sanctorum). C) Use of wooden planks, carved elephants, and no circumambulation path. Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Literary Works and Authors (Gupta Period) Identify the correct pairing of the text and its author during the Gupta period. A) Mriccha Katika : Kalidasa B) Abhijnana Sakunthala : Kalidasa C) Amarakosam : Sudraka Answer: B
Set 2: Philosophical Schools and Exponents Identify the correct pairing of the philosophical school and its proponent. A) Nyaya : Kapila B) Samkhya : Kapila C) Mimamsa : Gauthama Answer: B
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Defining Indian Feudalism (Gupta Period)
1. Identify the characteristic description of 'Indian Feudalism' resulting from land grants during the Gupta period. A) A system where the king maintained complete authority over all donated land. B) A system where farmers owned their land and paid taxes to the king. C) A system where farmers, agricultural labourers, and slaves were bound to the donated land, living and dying in the same soil, and providing free services to the landlords (upper stratum). Answer: C
Set 2: Characteristics of Prasastis 2. What are ‘Prasastis’? A) They are large granite walls erected around stupas. B) They are stone inscriptions erected by rulers of ancient India to proclaim their achievements and conquests, often praising the king (e.g., Prayaga Prasati). C) They are the names given to land granted to Brahmins (Agraharas). Answer: B
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Evolution of Dravidian Architecture Arrange the phases of Dravidian temple architecture development in chronological order:
1. Rock-cut temples
2. Structural temples
3. Monolithic chariot temples A) 1, 3, 2 (Rock-cut temples, Monolithic chariot temples, Structural temples) Answer: A
Set 2: Matching South Indian Guilds and Land Grants Match the term related to South India with its description:
1. Vanika communities
2. Brahmadeya
3. Devadanam a. Land gifted to the Deity or the Temple b. Merchant guilds in South India c. Land granted to a group of Brahmins A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Satavahana vs. Gupta Land Grants How did the practice of land grants under the Satavahanas differ from those under the Guptas? A) The Satavahanas typically granted only the right to the resources of the land, whereas the Guptas transferred both rights over the land’s resources and rights over the people living there. B) The Satavahanas granted land only to temples, while the Guptas granted land only to Brahmins. C) The Guptas granted land to Brahmins, while the Satavahanas granted land to Srenis. Answer: A
Set 2: Anuloma vs. Pratiloma Marriages Distinguish between ‘Anuloma’ and ‘Pratiloma’ marriages, according to the Arthasastra. A) Anuloma is marriage within the same caste; Pratiloma is marriage between different castes. B) Anuloma is marriage between a groom from an upper caste and a bride from a lower caste; Pratiloma is marriage between a bride from an upper caste and a groom from a lower caste. C) Anuloma is polygamy; Pratiloma is polyandry. Answer: B
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Causes of Urban Decay (Gupta Period) Explain the reasons for the decay of many major towns during the Gupta period (5th to 7th centuries CE). A) Widespread foreign invasions and continuous wars. B) Decline of India’s foreign trade (following the collapse of the Roman Empire), slump in internal trade, general decline in crafts, and ruralisation of the economy. C) Increased royal patronage for Sanskrit literature. Answer: B
Set 2: Importance of Metallurgy (Gupta Period) Analyze the significance of the Iron Pillar at Mehrauli near Delhi. A) It showcases the architectural excellence in temple building. B) Built in the 4th century CE, it is an excellent example of the technological skills achieved in metallurgy during the Gupta period, showing no sign of rusting despite weathering for centuries. C) It contains the Prayaga Prasati praising Samudragupta. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Function of Guilds (Srenis) Elucidate the primary functions of ‘Guilds’ or ‘Srenis’ during the Gupta period. A) They were groups of landlords who received land grants. B) They were associations of craftsmen and traders responsible for collecting raw materials, controlling production, and marketing finished goods. C) They were assemblies of elders who settled disputes in the village. Answer: B
Set 2: Treatment of Chandalas (Fa Hien's Description) Elucidate the social status and treatment of the ‘Chandalas’ during the 5th century CE, based on Fa Hien's description. A) They were treated equally by all sections of society. B) They were considered ‘untouchables’ outside the Chaturvarnya system and had to beat a wooden plank when entering a city/market to inform higher caste people to move away. C) They were high-status merchants who had a role in administration. Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Complex Caste System (Gupta Period) Analyze the cause for the caste system becoming more complex ('jati' or 'upajati') during the Gupta period. A) The decline in agriculture required fewer agricultural labourers. B) The existing varna system was unable to accommodate the entry of new occupational groups, incoming peoples from outside the subcontinent, forest dwellers (‘Nishadas’), and children born of inter-caste marriages. C) The increase in foreign trade brought in new traders (Nagarasreshtin) who were outside the Varna system. Answer: B
Set 2: Limited Status of Women (Gupta Period) Analyze the evidence indicating the generally low status of women in Gupta society, despite certain high-status women existing. A) Upper-class women were allowed to receive land grants and practice politics freely. B) All women, from queens to those of the lowest section, were expected to be submissive to men, and there is no evidence that even a Brahmin woman received a land grant. C) Sanskrit literature strictly forbade women from performing on stage. Answer: B
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Ghatiyantra (Araghata) Identify and describe the Ghatiyantra (Araghata). A) A large water reservoir (like Sudarsana Lake). B) An irrigation method where pots are attached to a wheel; rotating the wheel drew water from a source and emptied it for agriculture. C) A canal used to distribute river water to farmland. Answer: B
Set 2: Source of Information on Maurya History Identify and describe the primary source material used for studying the military victories and conquests of Samudragupta. A) The Arthashastra written by Kautilya. B) The description of Fa Hien about Chandalas. C) The Prayaga Prasati, composed by Harisena in Sanskrit, which praises Samudragupta's conquests and military victories from Nepal to Tamil Nadu. Answer: C
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Justification for Gupta King's Authority Justify the perception of the Gupta king's extensive power, based on the Prayaga Prasasti. A) The king was responsible for settling all village disputes. B) The king was considered equal to Gods (Kubera, Varuna, Indra, and Anthaka) and had no equal rival on the face of the Earth. C) The king granted extensive autonomy to all Samanthas. Answer: B
Set 2: Justification for Brahmins' High Status in South India Justify why Brahmins attained high status in South Indian society and economy following the spread of the land grant system (6th century CE). A) They specialized in trade (Vanika communities). B) The receipt of large extents of land as Brahmadeya made them wealthy, and their knowledge of agricultural technology and climate helped expand agriculture, increasing their influence. C) They were exempted from all taxes, unlike the Kshatriyas. Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Distribution of Power in the Indian Constitution
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Key Ideals in Objective Resolution
1. Which three ideals are included in the Objective Resolution regarding justice and equality? A) Right to property, freedom of press, and the right to revolution. B) Social, economic and political justice, equality of status, and equality of opportunity. C) Bicameral legislature, federalism, and independent judiciary. Answer: B
Set 2: Features of the Indian Constitution 2. Which three features characterize the Indian Constitution? A) Unitary structure, dependent judiciary, and flexible structure only. B) Federalism with a strong Central Government, Rigid and Flexible Structure, and Independent Constitutional Institutions. C) Monarchy, weak executive, and absence of Fundamental Rights. Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Executive Types and Heads Identify the correct pairing of the executive type and its head. A) Nominal Executive : Prime Minister B) Real Executive : Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers C) Permanent Executive : President Answer: B
Set 2: Jurisdictions of the Supreme Court Identify the jurisdiction that addresses Centre-State Disputes. A) Appellate Jurisdiction B) Original Jurisdiction C) Advisory Jurisdiction Answer: B
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Features of Indian Federalism (Quasi-Federal)
1. Identify the characteristic that gives the center an upper hand in Indian Federalism. A) Sovereignty of the Constitution B) Division of powers between center and states C) More subjects and key powers are with the centre, and the center has an upper hand in the powers to amend the Constitution. Answer: C
Set 2: Functions of the Legislature 2. Identify a primary function of the Legislature (Parliament). A) Implementing the laws and policies. B) Interpreting the Constitution and protecting Fundamental Rights. C) To make laws for the country and serve as a custodian of the public treasury. Answer: C
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Stages of Ordinary Legislation Arrange the following stages of a bill becoming law in the correct sequence:
1. Third Reading
2. President Assent
3. First Reading
4. Second Reading A) 3, 4, 1, 2 (First Reading, Second Reading, Third Reading, President Assent) Answer: A
Set 2: Division of Powers (Seventh Schedule) Match the subject with the list it belongs to in the Seventh Schedule:
1. Agriculture
2. Foreign Affairs
3. Education a. Union List b. State List c. Concurrent List A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Lok Sabha vs. Rajya Sabha (Power) Compare the relative powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. A) Rajya Sabha has more power, especially regarding Money Bills. B) Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha, particularly because Money Bills must initially be presented there, and government formation depends on its majority. C) Both houses have equal powers in all legislative matters. Answer: B
Set 2: Government Bill vs. Private Member Bill Distinguish between a Government Bill and a Private Member Bill. A) Government Bills are related to Money Bills; Private Member Bills are Ordinary Bills. B) A Government Bill is presented by a minister; a Private Member Bill is introduced by a member of parliament who is not a minister. C) Government Bills do not require Presidential assent; Private Member Bills always require it. Answer: B
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Separation of Powers (Purpose) Explain the purpose of the constitutional principle of Separation of Powers among the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary, according to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. A) To concentrate power in the hands of the Executive for efficiency. B) To prevent the concentration of power in any one branch, thereby avoiding total tyranny and total oppression, ensuring that the Constitution limits government powers. C) To allow the Judiciary to control the Executive without any checks. Answer: B
Set 2: Role of Judicial Review Analyze the significance of Judicial Review for the Supreme Court. A) It is the power to give legal advice to the President. B) It is the power of the Supreme Court to examine the constitutionality of any law made by Parliament or order passed by the executive, and declare it unconstitutional and inapplicable if inconsistent with the Constitution. C) It is the power to resolve Centre-State disputes. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Flexible Amendment Method Elucidate the 'Flexible Amendment' method of the Constitution, using an example. A) Amendment requiring special majority of both houses and approval of half the states (e.g., division of powers). B) Amendment requiring a special majority of both houses (e.g., Fundamental Rights). C) Amendment that can be made by the Parliament with simple majority through procedures similar to ordinary legislation (e.g., renaming of states, boundaries, citizenship). Answer: C
Set 2: The Permanent Executive (Bureaucracy) Elucidate the function and nature of the Permanent Executive (Bureaucracy). A) They are the Political Executive consisting of the President and Prime Minister. B) They carry out the day-to-day operations of the government, assist the political executive in formulating bills, are selected through competitive examinations, and remain in office even if the ruling party changes. C) They are elected members of the Legislature who make laws. Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Need for Constitutional Amendment Analyze the primary socio-political need necessitating Constitutional Amendments. A) To maintain the original, rigid nature of the Constitution at all costs. B) To incorporate changes from time to time, considering the socio-political needs, by making corrections, omissions, or additions to the Constitution (e.g., lowering the voting age, making education a Fundamental Right). C) To bypass the Judiciary's power of Judicial Review. Answer: B
Set 2: Role of Bicameral Legislature in Diversity Analyze how a bicameral legislature (like the Indian Parliament) helps address diversity in a large country. A) It ensures that the Executive has total control over law making. B) It is helpful in representing the diversity (people and regions) of the country, and plays an important role in enabling democratic discussions and debates. C) It ensures that all constitutional amendments require the approval of at least half of the states. Answer: B
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Electoral College Identify and describe the Electoral College that elects the President of India. A) All registered citizens of India who are eligible to vote. B) It consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies only. C) The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Answer: B
Set 2: Chief Functions of the Prime Minister Identify and describe the administrative role of the Prime Minister. A) The constitutional head of the State and Commander-in-Chief of the defense forces. B) The administrative head of the country, leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha, who forms the Council of Ministers, and acts as the link between the President, Cabinet, and Parliament. C) Head of the Permanent Executive who carries out day-to-day operations. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Justification for Federal System in India Justify why India adopted a federal system, despite the Constitution not explicitly calling India a federal state. A) To concentrate all powers solely with the Central Government. B) To accommodate the social, regional, and geographical diversity of India, to preserve the unity and integrity of the country, and to strengthen democracy through power sharing between the Centre and States. C) Because the Constitution is rigid and cannot be easily amended. Answer: B
Set 2: Justification for Independent Judiciary Justify why the Judiciary is known as the Protector of the Constitution. A) Because it prepares the electoral rolls for the Election Commission. B) Because it is the mechanism that ensures the functions of the legislative and executive branches are in accordance with the Constitution, protects constitutional values, and guards the fundamental rights of citizens. C) Because it appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Answer: B
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Chapter 5: Demographic Trends in India
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Indicators of Demography
1. Which three indicators are commonly used in the systematic study of population (Demography)? A) Varna System, Land Grants, and GDP. B) Birth rate and death rate, Migration, and Age Structure. C) Economic Progress, Foreign Policy, and Political System. Answer: B
Set 2: Factors Influencing Mortality Rates 2. Which three external factors can affect mortality rates (death rate)? A) Population density, Age structure, and Dependency ratio. B) Epidemics, Famines, and Climate Change. C) Literacy rate, Higher education, and Public distribution system. Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Migration Types Identify the correct pairing of the migration type and its definition. A) Internal Migration : Movement across country borders B) International Migration : Migration across country borders C) Internal Migration : Migration within a country's border Answer: B
Set 2: Demographic Ratios Identify the ratio used to compare the dependent category of population (below 15, above 64) and the working population (15 to 64 years). A) Female-Male Ratio B) Child Sex Ratio C) Dependency Ratio Answer: C
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Definition of Demography
1. Identify the systematic study undertaken by Demography. A) The study of political systems and administrative structure. B) The branch of science that deals with the population structure such as birth and death rates, migration, and population density (the systematic study of population). C) The study of geography and topography only. Answer: B
Set 2: Definition of Population Density 2. What is the definition of Population Density? A) The total number of people residing in an area. B) The percentage of young people in an area. C) The average number of people residing per square kilometer. Answer: C
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Age Groups in Population Structure Match the age group with its category:
1. 0-14
2. 15-59
3. Above 60 a. Elderly b. Children c. Young people A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a Answer: A
Set 2: Population Health Indicators Match the rate with its calculation basis:
1. Birth rate
2. Infant mortality rate
3. Maternal mortality rate a. Number of women who die during childbirth per thousand births in a year b. Number of live births per thousand of the population c. Number of infants who die within one year out of 1000 live births in a year A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Social vs. Formal Demography Distinguish between Social Demography and Formal Demography. A) Formal demography studies socio-economic and political patterns; Social demography measures population change factors. B) Social demography investigates the structure of population change and its consequences, focusing on sociological factors (e.g., religion, gender); Formal demography measures and analyzes the factors of population change (e.g., Census). C) Social demography focuses on migration; Formal demography focuses on birth rate. Answer: B
Set 2: Infant Mortality Rate vs. Maternal Mortality Rate Distinguish between Infant Mortality Rate and Maternal Mortality Rate. A) Both are calculated per thousand deaths in a year. B) Infant mortality rate is the number of infants who die within one year out of 1000 live births in a year; Maternal mortality rate is the number of women who die during childbirth per thousand births in a year. C) Infant mortality rate applies only to boys; maternal mortality rate applies only to women above 40. Answer: B
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Demographic Dividend Explain the concept of ‘demographic gift’ or ‘demographic dividend.’ A) It refers to the mandatory registration of births and deaths. B) It is the economic progress that results when the number of employed people (ages 15-64) is greater than the number of the unemployed/dependents (the dependency ratio decreases). C) It is the process of population aging due to high life expectancy. Answer: B
Set 2: Indicators of Backwardness (Health) Analyze what a high infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate indicate about a country. A) High rates of education and economic growth. B) Indicators of backwardness and poverty of that country. C) An aging population structure. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Factors for High Life Expectancy in Kerala Elucidate the factors contributing to the high life expectancy rate in Kerala. A) High population density and low birth rate. B) High prevalence of temporary migration. C) High literacy rate and higher education, decentralized public health policy, cleanliness, food availability, and public distribution system. Answer: C
Set 2: The Goal of National Population Policy 2000 Elucidate the long-term goal stipulated by the National Population Policy 2000. A) To achieve a demographic dividend by 2030. B) To streamline the population by 2045 in such a way as to strengthen sustainable economic growth, social progress, and environmental protection. C) To raise awareness about the rights of girls. Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Problems Arising from Rising Dependency Ratio Analyze the problems that arise when the dependency ratio rises. A) Increased investment in healthcare for the young population. B) The employable population (between 15 and 64) is forced to take up the responsibility of a large segment of the unemployed, leading to an increase in the number of old age population, and potentially hindering economic progress. C) A decrease in life expectancy for the working age population. Answer: B
Set 2: Social Problems of Decreasing Male-Female Ratio Analyze the key social problems created by a decreasing male-female ratio (Sex Ratio). A) Increased labor force participation among women. B) Increased likelihood of high literacy rates. C) The male-female balance is disturbed, affecting population prediction and crucial demographic indicators like birth rate, death rate, and migration. Answer: C
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: UNFPA Identify and describe the role of the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA). A) A national agency that conducts the census in India. B) An international agency under the United Nations focused on enabling population development by providing access to quality reproductive health services, family planning, maternal health care, geriatric care, and sexuality education. C) A state government body implementing the State Old Age Policy. Answer: B
Set 2: Life Expectancy Identify and describe the indicator used to estimate how long a person lives on average. A) Dependency ratio. B) Life Expectancy: An estimate of how long a person lives on an average, determined on the basis of the death rate of each age group in a particular area. C) Ageing population structure. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Justification for Population Control Justify the necessity of controlling the population in relation to resources. A) Because migration rates are too high. B) Because population growth creates crises in health and quality of life, and the population must be controlled in proportion to available resources to achieve sustainable development. C) Because demographic studies are primarily focused on formal demography. Answer: B
Set 2: Justification for Sustainable Development Justify the condition required for India to achieve Sustainable Development. A) Achieving a demographic dividend that is stable over time. B) India’s population growth, available resources, and environmental capacity must be utilized for the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future generations. C) Maintaining a low life expectancy rate to reduce the burden on resources. Answer: B
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Chapter 6: From the Land of Cholas to Delhi
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Economic Activities in Chola Kingdom
1. Which three crops/products were cultivated in the Chola kingdom? A) Rice, Barley, and Wheat. B) Sugarcane, Betel leaf, and Turmeric. C) Opium, Silk, and Horses. Answer: B
Set 2: Architectural Contributions of the Delhi Sultanate 2. Which three structures in Delhi are examples of the architectural contributions of the Sultanate period? A) Brihadiswara Temple, Kailasa Temple, and Nalanda University. B) Qutb Minar, Tughlaqabad Fort, and Lodi Gardens. C) Red Fort, Jama Masjid, and Taj Mahal. Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Dynasty and Ruler/Contribution Identify the correct pairing of the dynasty and its prominent figure/contribution. A) Chalukyas : Dharmapala B) Cholas : Rajaraja Chola C) Palas : Pulakesi II Answer: B
Set 2: Historical Events/Structures Identify the correct pairing of the structure/system and its associated ruler/period. A) Iqta System : Alauddin Khalji B) Brihadiswara Temple : Rajaraja Chola C) Kailasa Temple (Ellora) : Guptas Answer: B
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Key Feature of Chola Local Administration
1. Identify the key characteristic of Chola local administration documented in the Uttharamaerur Inscription. A) The rule was centered on the military-powered lords (Samantas). B) Village self-governance through autonomous Councils called ‘Ur’ (Assembly of the People) and ‘Sabha’ (Assembly of Elders in Brahmin Village). C) Centralized monarchy supported by a standing army. Answer: B
Set 2: Feature of Chalukya Rule 2. Identify a characteristic feature of Chalukya rule (6th to 12th century CE). A) They had a centralized monarchy like the Cholas. B) The monarchy was controlled by temples, Brahmins (owners of Brahmadeya land), and Samantas, leading to frequent shifts in power centers. C) They had a large standing army and a Council of Ministers to assist the king. Answer: B
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate (Chronological Order) Arrange the following dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate (1206 to 1526 CE) in chronological order of their rule:
1. Tughlaq
2. Khalji
3. Mamluk
4. Lodi A) 3, 2, 1, 4 (Mamluk, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyid, Lodi) Answer: A
Set 2: Matching Thinkers/Authors and Their Works/Contributions Match the person with their contribution:
1. Amir Khusru
2. Rajasekharan
3. Ziauddin Barani a. Important historian who lived during the Sultanate period b. Sanskrit poet and playwright who authored Kavyameemamsa (lived in Pratihara palace) c. Medieval Indian poet who wrote beautiful works in Persian and helped develop Urdu A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Chola vs. Chalukya Administration Compare the political structure of the Cholas and the Chalukyas. A) Cholas lacked local self-governance, while Chalukyas had strong Ur and Sabha councils. B) Cholas had a strong centralized monarchy with a navy and Council of Ministers; Chalukya rule was centered on military-powered lords (Samantas) and lacked a standing army or council of ministers. C) Both dynasties had a system where the king maintained minimal power, controlled by Brahmins. Answer: B
Set 2: Social Status of Vaishyas and Sudras (Rashtrakuta Period) Identify how the social status of Vaishyas and Sudras changed during the Rashtrakuta period compared to the past. A) Both Vaishyas and Sudras maintained their status strictly based on the Chaturvarnya system. B) The decline of trade led to the decline of the Vaishyas' status, while the growth of agriculture and Sudras becoming members of the army paved the way for the uplift of the Sudras' status. C) Only the Brahmins and Kshatriyas maintained their status; all other castes declined. Answer: B
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Economic Role of Chola Temples Explain the role of temples in the socio-economic life of the Chola Kingdom. A) Temples served only as religious centers and had no economic function. B) Temples were very rich, receiving income from land grants, contributions, and taxes; they were centers of employment for artisans and craftsmen, and housed educational institutions and hospitals. C) Temples were built primarily to showcase the Dravidian architectural style but did not influence trade. Answer: B
Set 2: Purpose of Alauddin Khalji's Market Control Analyze the primary objective behind Alauddin Khalji's Market Control reforms. A) To increase the prices of essential commodities to fill the royal treasury. B) To control the prices of all products, especially foodstuff, so that he could pay a low salary and afford to maintain a large, strong army required after the Mongolian invasion. C) To promote foreign trade with West Asia and China. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Granary of Tamizhakam Elucidate why Thanjavur (the Chola headquarters) was known as the ‘granary of Tamizhakam.’ A) Because it was the main port for exporting grains overseas. B) Due to its location in the Kaveri River Valley, the area was suitable for agriculture, rich with paddy fields and plantations, supported by numerous rivers and canals. C) Because it housed the largest number of Srenis (guilds) of traders. Answer: B
Set 2: Iqta System Elucidate the function of the Iqta system introduced during the reign of Iltumish. A) A form of irrigation system used for lifting water from waterbodies (Rahat system). B) A system where the country's land was divided into large and small units (Iqtas) and granted to soldiers, bureaucrats, and nobles, who were responsible for collecting land revenue for the Sultan. C) An association of craftsmen and traders (Srenis). Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Reason for Arab Invasion of Sindh Analyze the immediate cause that led to the Arab invasion of Sindh in 712 CE. A) The desire of the Caliph of Baghdad to spread Islam. B) The pirate attack on a ship traveling from Ceylon to Arabia carrying gifts for the Caliph of Baghdad and Governor Al Hajjaj. C) The internal conflict among the Palas, Pratiharas, and Rashtrakutas. Answer: B
Set 2: Why Gold and Silver Flowed into India (Sultanate Period) Analyze the reason why gold and silver flowed into India during the Sultanate period. A) The use of Tanka (Silver) and Dirham (Copper) as currency stabilized the economy. B) Both exports and imports were strengthened, but India had more exports (e.g., textiles) than imports, ensuring gold and silver flowed into the country. C) The farmers had to pay tax in gold and silver only. Answer: B
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Chola Lake Identify and describe the body of water known as the ‘Chola Lake’ and the reason for its name. A) The Kaveri River, due to its importance in Chola agriculture. B) The Bay of Bengal, so named due to the naval dominance and political domination established by the Cholas in that area. C) The Erippatti (large ponds) built by Chola rulers. Answer: B
Set 2: Indian Literature and the Sultanate Period Identify and describe the development of language and literature during the Sultanate period. A) Writing history declined, and Sanskrit literature was banned. B) The Urdu language evolved as a unique blend of Persian and 'Hindavi' (vernacular language of Delhi region); history writing grew prominently (e.g., Ziauddin Barani), and Indian scientific works were translated into Arabic. C) Only the works of Amir Khusru were patronized. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Justification for Palas' Influence Justify the Pala rule (8th to mid-9th century CE) as a period of the spread of Indian culture and Buddhism. A) They opposed trade relations with Southeast Asia. B) The Pala kings rebuilt Nalanda University and founded Vikramashila University, attracting Buddhist followers from Tibet, and maintained diplomatic and trade relations with Arabia and Southeast Asia, spreading Indian ideas and religion. C) They centered their power in the western part of North India (Pratiharas). Answer: B
Set 2: Justification for Sultanate Cultural Influence Justify why the Sultanate period resulted in a ‘symbiosis’ of cultures. A) The Sultans strictly forbade the interaction between Hindus and Muslims. B) The cultural shift was not sudden; instead, a long-term mutual interaction between the two cultures formed a symbiosis, evident in architecture (Qutb Minar) and language (Urdu). C) The Sultans only promoted Sanskrit literature and ancient Indian sciences. Answer: B
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Chapter 7: Extension of Democracy through Institutions
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Functions of the Election Commission
1. Which three functions are performed by the Election Commission of India? A) Appointing judges of the Supreme Court, dissolving the Lok Sabha, and issuing ordinances. B) Preparation of electoral roll, promulgation and enforcement of codes of conduct, and recognition of political parties and allotment of symbols. C) Conducting elections to Local Self-Governments (State Election Commission), registering births and deaths, and granting citizenship. Answer: B
Set 2: Aims of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights 2. Which three areas are the aims of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights? A) Gender identity, matrimonial law, and electoral reforms. B) Education, health, care, welfare, and justice of children. C) Land grants, military administration, and tax collection. Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Acts and Provisions Identify the correct pairing of the Act and its specific provision. A) SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 : Registration of political parties. B) Representation of People Act, 1950 : Delimitation of boundaries of constituencies and preparation of electoral rolls. C) Protection of Women Against Domestic Violence Act, 2005 : Prevention of dowry. Answer: B
Set 2: Commissions and Headquarters Identify the correct pairing of the Commission and its Headquarters (as stated in the source). A) National Human Rights Commission : Thiruvananthapuram B) Kerala State Women’s Commission : Thiruvananthapuram C) National Commission for Backward Classes : Mumbai Answer: B
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Difference between Constitutional and Extra Constitutional Bodies
1. Identify the key characteristic distinguishing constitutional bodies from extra constitutional bodies. A) Constitutional bodies are formed by laws passed by the Parliament. B) Constitutional bodies are autonomous bodies formed when the Constitution came into force, with the Constitution as the source of power, requiring constitutional amendment for changes. C) Extra constitutional bodies focus solely on human rights issues. Answer: B
Set 2: Qualification for NHRC Chairperson 2. What is the essential qualification required for the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? A) Must be a Chief Electoral Officer. B) The Chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice/Judge of the Supreme Court of India. C) Must be nominated by the Central Government. Answer: B
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Commissions by Year of Formation (Oldest to Newest) Arrange the following commissions based on their year of formation, from oldest to newest:
1. National Human Rights Commission (1993)
2. National Women’s Commission (1992)
3. National Commission for Backward Classes (1993)
4. Election Commission (1950) A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (Election Commission, NWC, NHRC, NCBC) Answer: A
Set 2: Matching Commissions and Administrative Body Match the Commission with the legal/administrative basis for its operation:
1. State Election Commission
2. Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
3. National Commission for Backward Classes a. Constitutional status achieved in 2018 b. Article 320 of the Constitution c. Articles 243 (K) and 243 (ZA) A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Dowry Prohibition Act vs. Domestic Violence Act Distinguish between the objectives of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, and the Protection of Women Against Domestic Violence Act, 2005. A) Both acts focus only on physical violence prevention. B) The Dowry Prohibition Act aims to eradicate dowry exchange and related atrocities; the Domestic Violence Act protects women from violence (including insult) by life partners/relatives and provides protection, boarding, and financial help. C) The Dowry Prohibition Act is concerned with property rights; the Domestic Violence Act is concerned with marriage registration. Answer: B
Set 2: UPSC vs. KPSC Compare the primary jurisdictions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the Kerala Public Service Commission (KPSC). A) Both conduct recruitment for All India Service. B) UPSC conducts recruitment to the All India Service and the Central Civil Service; KPSC conducts recruitments to the state government services, in Kerala. C) UPSC deals with constitutional amendments; KPSC deals with human rights violations. Answer: B
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Importance of EVMs Explain the significance of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) introduced by the Election Commission. A) EVMs are used only for President and Vice President elections. B) EVMs are executed to ensure transparency, prevent election crimes, speed up the election process, and reduce election costs. C) EVMs replaced the role of the Chief Electoral Officers completely. Answer: B
Set 2: Role of SC/ST Commissions in Democracy Analyze how the activities of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commissions strengthen democracy. A) By enforcing the traditional Varna system. B) By protecting SC/ST sections from discrimination and exploitation, and integrating them into the mainstream society while protecting their traditional knowledge and culture, accelerating the participation of marginalized sections. C) By conducting competitive examinations for Central Services. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Impeachment Elucidate the term ‘Impeachment’ as used in the context of the Election Commission. A) The process of resolving election disputes. B) The process of removing persons holding constitutional positions (like the Chief Election Commissioner) through parliamentary proceedings. C) The act of promulgating the codes of conduct during elections. Answer: B
Set 2: Nehru's View on SC/ST Development Elucidate the highest priority suggested by Jawaharlal Nehru for the developmental activities in Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes areas. A) Focusing primarily on cottage industries. B) Roads and communication should be given the highest priority; without them, other efforts like schools and health services will not be effective, and help should be provided while allowing them to live according to their own way. C) Only focusing on reservation benefits and housing. Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: The Requirement for Democratic Success Analyze the crucial factor upon which the success of democracy hinges, particularly in diverse societies like India. A) The enforcement of a rigid, centralized bureaucracy. B) The active participation of marginalized and weaker sections of society, ensuring their wishes and aspirations are considered fairly, which constitutional and extra constitutional bodies strive to achieve. C) The constant increase in the number of extra constitutional bodies. Answer: B
Set 2: Why Women's Commission Intervenes Analyze the primary reason the National Women’s Commission intervenes in various issues faced by women. A) To enforce specific caste norms. B) To uphold the dignity of women, prevent atrocities against them, and initiate steps to ensure their social advancement, thereby ensuring gender justice and strengthening democracy. C) To mandate that all political parties must register with the Election Commission. Answer: B
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: National Voter's Day Identify and describe the significance of National Voter's Day. A) Observed on March 8th to ensure gender equality. B) Observed on January 25th (the date the Election Commission was established in 1950) to encourage all voters of the country to actively intervene in the process of election and to cast their votes. C) Observed on December 10th to mark Human Rights Day. Answer: B
Set 2: Human Rights Definition (Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993) Identify and describe the rights recognized as Human Rights under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. A) The right to citizenship and the right to freedom of movement only. B) The rights to life, liberty, equal treatment, and dignity, as assured by the Constitution of India and international agreements ratified by India. C) The right to conduct parliamentary proceedings. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Justification for Democratic Election System Justify the necessity of having an independent and authentic system for elections in a democratic governance model. A) To ensure that the Prime Minister can appoint ministers easily. B) Because rulers come to power through elections, the Election Commission is essential to guarantee just and impartial elections, thereby maintaining transparency and strengthening electoral democracy. C) To limit the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner to three years. Answer: B
Set 2: Justification for Minority Commission's Role Justify the role of the Minority Commission in consolidating democracy. A) By ensuring that linguistic minorities only use gender-inclusive language. B) By preventing atrocities against minorities, ensuring their constitutional rights are protected, and integrating them into the political and social mainstream, thereby expanding the scope of democracy. C) By evaluating the functioning of the State Human Rights Commissions. Answer: B
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Chapter 8: Towards a Gender-Neutral Society
Triple Multiple Choice/Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Characteristics of Gender (Social Construct)
1. Which three characteristics are true regarding the concept of Gender? A) Biological, constant, inherited status. B) Social construct, acquired/strengthened through social intervention, achieved status. C) Defined by chromosomes, hormones, and genitalia. Answer: B
Set 2: Constitutional Articles Related to Gender Equality 2. Which three articles of the Indian Constitution ensure equality or rights related to gender? A) Article 320, Article 368, Article 101. B) Article 14 (Equality before law), Article 15 (No discrimination based on gender), and Article 16 (Equality of opportunity). C) Article 51A (a), Article 51A (b), and Article 51A (g). Answer: B
Finding Relationships/Pairing Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Status Types and Examples Identify the correct pairing of the status type and its example. A) Achieved Status : Sex B) Ascribed Status : Educational qualification C) Achieved Status : Gender Answer: C
Set 2: Historical Uprisings and Objectives Identify the correct pairing of the historical uprising and its cause/objective. A) Kallumala Uprising : Right to wear clothes (Upper Cloth) B) Upper Cloth Revolt : Struggle for the right to wear clothes (Marumarackal Samaram) C) Perinad Revolt : Against the practice of Sati Answer: B
Characteristic Identification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Definition of Gender Role
1. Identify the characteristic definition of 'Gender Role'. A) The biological characteristics that define males and females. B) The societal expectations regarding what men and women should do, think, say and wear, representing specific characteristics associated with masculinity and femininity. C) The social classification of people based on oversimplified assumptions about caste or religion. Answer: B
Set 2: Definition of Social Stratification 2. What is Social Stratification? A) The process by which individuals learn values and practices of society (socialisation). B) The social placement of individuals into different hierarchical layers or strata without equality, where those in higher strata enjoy greater status (e.g., slavery and the caste system). C) The legal system that prohibits dowry. Answer: B
Sequencing/Matching Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Social Reform Laws/Articles (Chronological) Arrange the following anti-discrimination/reform measures chronologically by year of enactment (earliest to latest):
1. Protection of Women Against Domestic Violence Act (2005)
2. Untouchability (Offences) Act (1955)
3. Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act (1987)
4. Dowry Prohibition Act (1961) A) 2, 4, 3, 1 Answer: A
Set 2: Matching Concepts and Definitions Match the concept with its definition:
1. Social Norms
2. Stereotype
3. Transgender a. A person whose gender identity does not correspond with the gender assigned at birth b. Social classification based on oversimplified and generalized assumptions c. Unwritten laws regarding beliefs, behaviours and attitudes considered acceptable in a social group A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a Answer: A
Comparison/Difference Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Sex vs. Gender Distinguish between ‘Sex’ and ‘Gender’. A) Sex is an achieved status; Gender is an ascribed status. B) Sex refers to the biological features (chromosomes, physical structures, hormones) that define males and females; Gender refers to the social, cultural, and psychological characteristics that are acquired and reinforced through social intervention. C) Sex changes over time; Gender is constant. Answer: B
Set 2: Ascribed Status vs. Achieved Status Distinguish between Ascribed Status and Achieved Status. A) Ascribed status is social status acquired by birth (e.g., sex, race); Achieved status is status acquired through individual ability and choice (e.g., educational qualification, income, gender). B) Ascribed status is learned from society; Achieved status is inherited. C) Ascribed status relates to gender; Achieved status relates to race. Answer: A
Explanation/Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Gender Stereotypes and Language Explain how language usage can reinforce gender stereotypes, using the example of job titles. A) Language classification of nouns based on gender is biologically determined. B) Terms that seemingly refer to males (like ‘doctor’ or ‘citizen’) reinforce the stereotype that those areas were once monopolized by men, requiring the use of gender-specific terms like ‘lady doctor.’ C) Gender-inclusive terms (like ‘engineer’) eliminate all forms of discrimination. Answer: B
Set 2: Socialisation and Gender Analyze the relationship between socialisation and gender acquisition. A) Socialisation is the process that defines biological sex. B) Gender is an achieved status, learned and formed from the culture we live in; socialisation is the lifelong process through which individuals acquire the values, practices, expectations, and behaviours associated with gender in society. C) Socialisation only happens in formal educational institutions. Answer: B
Elucidation/Example Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Definition of a Just Society Elucidate the characteristics of a 'Just Society' according to V. R. Krishna Iyer. A) A society where social norms are strictly enforced. B) A society in which every individual receives equal social, economic, and political justice irrespective of caste, religion, or gender, and where every member enjoys happiness and welfare. C) A society where only the upper stratum enjoys privileges (Social Stratification). Answer: B
Set 2: Role of Media in Stereotypes Elucidate how media, particularly advertisements, reinforce gender stereotypes. A) Media always promotes gender-inclusive terms. B) Advertisements reinforce stereotypes by consistently associating specific genders with specific products or roles (e.g., women with kitchen tools, men with cars or cement), presenting these roles as inherent qualities. C) Media is the primary source of biological sex definitions. Answer: B
Problem Analysis Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Hindrance to Gender Equality Analyze the key societal factors (roles, norms, beliefs) that collectively cause gender inequality, discrimination, and atrocities. A) The existence of political parties and constitutional bodies. B) The presence of gender roles, unwritten social norms, and gender stereotypes (oversimplified and generalized assumptions) which limit individual choices and lead to gender-based violence and discrimination. C) The enforcement of Article 14 of the Constitution. Answer: B
Set 2: Historical Importance of the Upper Cloth Revolt/Kallumala Uprising Analyze the historical importance of the Upper Cloth Revolt and the Kallumala Uprising. A) They were examples of high caste women fighting for economic rights. B) They represent historical instances where women, facing dual oppression (gender and caste), challenged existing norms and stereotypes to secure basic rights like the freedom to choose their clothes. C) They resulted in the establishment of the State Women’s Commission. Answer: B
Identification and Description Options (2 sets)
Set 1: Gender Discrimination Identify and describe the process that suppresses other genders for the sake of dominance of one gender. A) Gender-inclusive terms. B) Gender Discrimination: The process of suppressing other genders for the sake of dominance of one gender, which is a major cause hindering gender equality. C) Social Stratification. Answer: B
Set 2: Sati (Historical Practice) Identify and describe the social evil known as 'Sati' that was once practiced in India. A) The practice of forcing low caste individuals to wear stone necklaces (Kallumala Uprising). B) A cruel practice where a widow was forced to immolate herself on her husband's pyre, which existed as an oppressive social norm until legally abolished. C) The custom of untouchability enforced through caste rituals. Answer: B
Reasoning/Justification Options (2 sets)
Set 1: High Court Ruling on Gender Identity Justify the Kerala High Court's observation that "individuals have the right to self-identify their gender." A) Because gender is determined solely by biological sex. B) Because the Constitution ensures freedom in matters related to gender identity (Article 19(1)(a) and Article 21), and the Supreme Court affirmed that gender is a basis of social status along with sex. C) Because gender roles are constant and universally applied. Answer: B
Set 2: Justification for Renouncing Practices Derogatory to Women Justify why renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women is stipulated as a fundamental duty of Indian citizens. A) To encourage Pratiloma marriages. B) It is the fundamental duty of every citizen (Article 51A(e)) to promote harmony and brotherhood, and upholding the dignity of women is essential to ensure gender justice, which is necessary for the just society envisioned by the Constitution. C) To encourage the use of Sanskrit in judicial proceedings. Answer: B
