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Std IX
Social Science II – Chapter 1On the Roof of the World – Questions & Answers
Part 1: Diversity of India
Question 1:
How can India be described?
Answer: India is a
land of composite culture and pluralism with a long history of
cultural evolution.
Question 2:
In which areas is cultural diversity evident in India?
Answer:
Cultural diversity is evident in language, dress, traditions,
festivals, beliefs, and agriculture.
Question 3:
Which factor plays a decisive role in cultural diversity?
Answer:
Geographical diversity plays a decisive role in cultural diversity.
Question 4:
What elements are included in India's physical features?
Answer:
India's physical features include the Northern Mountains, vast
fertile plains, the Western Desert, the extensive Central Plateau,
long coastlines, and islands.
Question 5:
What are the physiographic divisions of India?
Answer:
The physiographic divisions of India are:
1. The Northern
Mountain Region
2. The North Indian Plain
3. The Peninsular
Plateau
4. The Indian Desert
5. The Coastal Plains and
Islands
Part 2: The Northern Mountain Region
Question 6:
Where is the Northern Mountain Region located in the Indian
subcontinent?
Answer: This region forms the
boundary of the northern and northeastern parts of the Indian
subcontinent.
Question 7:
What is known as the 'Roof of the World'?
Answer:
The Pamir Knot is known as the 'Roof of the World'.
Question 8:
From where do the mountain ranges in the Northern Mountain Region
start and where do they extend?
Answer: They
start from the Pamir Knot and extend eastward up to Purvanchal.
Question 9:
How were these mountains formed?
Answer: These
are relatively new and high fold mountains. They were formed due to
pressure exerted on sedimentary rock layers.
Question 10:
What is the extent of the Northern Mountain Region?
Answer:
It extends approximately 2400 kilometers from the Indus River in the
west to the Brahmaputra River in the east. Its width varies from 150
to 400 kilometers.
Question 11:
How is the Northern Mountain Region classified based on its
physiographic features?
Answer:
1.
Trans-Himalayas
2. Himalayas
3. Eastern Hills
Part 3: Trans-Himalayas
Question 12:
What is the Trans-Himalayas? What is its other name?
Answer:
The Trans-Himalayas is the northernmost division of the Northern
Mountain Region. It is also known as the Tibetan Himalayas.
Question 13:
What are the average height, width, and length of the
Trans-Himalayas?
Answer: The average height of
the Trans-Himalayas is 3000 meters. Its approximate width is 40
kilometers and length is 965 kilometers.
Question 14:
What is the importance of the Karakoram Range?
Answer:
The Karakoram Range connects the Himalayas with the Pamir Knot.
Part 4: Himalayas
Question 15:
What are the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Himadri, Himachal, and Siwalik are the three parallel ranges of the
Himalayas.
Question 16:
Describe the Siwalik Range.
Answer: The Siwalik
Range is the southernmost range of the Himalayas. It runs parallel to
the Ganga Plains. Its average width is 60 to 150 kilometers. It is
also known as the Outer Himalayas.
Question 17:
Describe the Himachal Range.
Answer: The
Himachal Range is located to the north of the Siwalik. It has an
average elevation of approximately 3500 to 4500 meters above sea
level. It is also known as the Lesser Himalayas. Its width is 60 to
80 kilometers.
Question 18:
Describe the Himadri Range.
Answer: The Himadri
is also known as the Greater Himalayas or Inner Himalayas. It has an
average elevation of approximately 6100 meters above sea level. Its
width is about 25 kilometers. Snow-capped mountains are found here.
Most of the world's highest peaks are located in this range.
Part 5: Origin of the Himalayas
Question 19:
What is the reason the Himalayas are still growing?
Answer:
The Himalayas are still growing due to plate tectonic movements.
Question 20:
What are tectonic plates?
Answer: Tectonic
plates are large blocks of the Earth's crust, including both
continental and oceanic parts.
Question 21:
What is the Asthenosphere?
Answer: The
Asthenosphere is a zone of molten and semi-plastic rock located below
the lithosphere. Tectonic plates slowly move over it.
Question 22:
What are the types of plate boundaries?
Answer:
1.
Convergent Boundary: A boundary where plates move
towards each other. This causes rock layers to fold and form fold
mountains.
2. Divergent Boundary: A boundary
where plates move away from each other.
3. Transform
Boundary: A boundary where plates slide past each other.
Question 23:
How were the Himalayas formed?
Answer: The
Indian plate, which included Peninsular India and the Australian
continent, moved northward approximately 150 to 160 million years
ago. It then collided with the Eurasian plate. The Tethys Sea bed,
located between these two plates, was uplifted to form the Himalayas.
Part 6: Gorges
Question 24:
What are gorges?
Answer: Gorges are deep
valleys with steep sides.
Question 25:
How are Himalayan gorges formed?
Answer: Gorges
are formed through erosion as rivers like Indus, Ganga, and
Brahmaputra flow through the Himalayan ranges.
Part 7: Regional Divisions of the Himalayas
Question 26:
How are the Himalayas classified based on the rivers that cut across
them?
Answer:
1. Western Himalayas
2.
Central Himalayas
3. Eastern Himalayas
Question 27:
Where do the Western Himalayas extend from and to?
Answer:
The Western Himalayas extend from the Indus River basin in Jammu and
Kashmir to the Kali River basin in Uttarakhand.
Question 28:
Where are the Kashmir Himalayas located? What are the main mountain
ranges?
Answer: The Kashmir Himalayas are
spread across Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, covering an area of
approximately 3.5 lakh square kilometers. It is about 700 kilometers
long and 500 kilometers wide. The main mountain ranges are Karakoram,
Zanskar, Ladakh, and Pir Panjal.
Question 29:
What is K2? In which range is it located?
Answer:
K2, also known as Godwin Austen, is the world's second-highest peak,
with a height of 8611 meters. It is located in the Karakoram Range.
Question 30:
What are the main glaciers in the Kashmir Himalayas? Why are they
famous?
Answer: Siachen and Baltoro are the
main glaciers. Siachen is known as the world's highest battlefield.
These glaciers ensure perennial water supply to the Indus River and
its tributaries like Ravi, Jhelum, and Chenab.
Question 31:
Which regions does the Banihal Pass connect?
Answer:
The Banihal Pass connects Jammu with the Kashmir Valley.
Question 32:
On the bank of which city is Dal Lake located? What is its
importance?
Answer: Srinagar is located on the
bank of Dal Lake. It is an important tourist and commercial center.
Question 33:
What are 'Margs'? Give examples.
Answer:
'Margs' are grasslands found on mountain slopes during summer.
Sonmarg and Gulmarg are examples. They are used for winter sports
like skiing.
Question 34:
What are the main rivers and mountain ranges in the Himachal
Himalayas?
Answer: Chenab, Ravi, and Beas are
the main rivers. Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal are the main mountain
ranges.
Question 35:
Which places do the Baralacha La Pass and Rohtang Pass
connect?
Answer:
* The Baralacha La Pass
connects Himachal Pradesh with Ladakh.
* The Rohtang Pass
connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys.
Question 36:
Why is Manikaran famous?
Answer: Manikaran is
famous for its hot springs. These are used for geothermal power
generation.
Question 37:
Where does the Uttarakhand Himalayas extend from and to? How is it
divided?
Answer: The Uttarakhand Himalayas
extend from the Satluj River to the Kali River. The western part is
known as Garhwal Himalayas, and the eastern part is known as Kumaon
Himalayas.
Question 38:
Which rivers originate from the Gangotri Glacier and Yamunotri
Glacier?
Answer: The Gangotri Glacier is the
source of the Ganga River, and the Yamunotri Glacier is the source of
the Yamuna River.
Question 39:
What are 'Bugyals'?
Answer: 'Bugyals' are
alpine summer grasslands found at elevations of 3000 to 4500 meters
in the Garhwal region. They are green during summer. Nomadic
pastoralists use them.
Question 40:
What is a 'Doon'? Give an example.
Answer:
'Doons' are flat valleys found between the Lesser Himalayas and the
Siwalik ranges. Dehradun is an example.
Question 41:
What is the other name for the Central Himalayas? Where does it
extend from and to?
Answer: The Central
Himalayas is also known as the Nepal Himalayas. It extends from the
Kali River to the Teesta River.
Question 42:
What is the highest peak in the world? In which Himalayan region is
it located?
Answer: Mount Everest is the
highest peak in the world. It is located in the Central Himalayan
region.
Question 43:
How did Darjeeling tea become famous?
Answer:
The British initiated tea cultivation here. After that, Darjeeling
tea gained international fame.
Question 44:
Between which countries is the Nathu La Pass located?
Answer:
The Nathu La Pass is on the border between India and China.
Question 45:
What is the other name for the Eastern Himalayas? What is its highest
peak?
Answer: The Eastern Himalayas is also
known as the Assam Himalayas. Namcha Barwa is its highest peak, with
a height of 7756 meters.
Question 46:
Which places do the Bomdila and Difu Passes connect?
Answer:
*
The Bomdila Pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa in Tibet.
*
The Difu Pass connects with Myanmar.
Part 8: Purvanchal Hills
Question 47:
Where are the Purvanchal Hills found? What is their average
height?
Answer: The Purvanchal Hills are found
in a north-south direction from Arunachal Pradesh to Mizoram. Their
average height is 500 to 3000 meters.
Question 48:
What are the main hills in the Purvanchal Hills?
Answer:
Patkai-Bum, Naga Hills, Mizo Hills, and Manipur Hills are the main
hills.
Question 49:
What are the places that receive the highest rainfall in the
world?
Answer: Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are
the places that receive the highest rainfall in the world.
Question 50:
Why is the Root Bridge in Meghalaya famous?
Answer:
This bridge, constructed by local people by weaving tree roots, is
famous as a testament to their coexistence with nature.
Question 51:
In which state is Keibul Lamjao National Park located? What is its
specialty?
Answer: Keibul Lamjao National Park
is located in Loktak Lake in Manipur. Its specialty is its unique
ecosystem, comprising 'phumdis', which are small islands formed by
floating vegetation and soil. It has been included in the Ramsar
List.
Part 9: Climate of the Northern Mountain Region
Question 52:
What role do the Himalayas play in the climate?
Answer:
The Himalayas act as a climatic divider between the Indian
subcontinent and Central Asia.
Question 53:
How is the climate in the Ladakh region?
Answer:
The climate in the Ladakh region resembles the extreme cold of polar
regions.
Question 54:
What is the reason for heavy rainfall in Northeast India?
Answer:
Monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal get trapped between the Assam
Himalayas and the Purvanchal Hills. Therefore, Northeast India,
especially the Meghalaya Plateau, receives heavy rainfall.
Part 10: Drainage System
Question 55:
What is the reason for the perennial flow of Himalayan
rivers?
Answer: Himalayan rivers flow
perennially because they receive water from rainfall and melting
snow.
Question 56:
What landforms do Himalayan rivers create in mountainous
regions?
Answer: V-shaped valleys, gorges, and
waterfalls are the main landforms created by Himalayan rivers.
Question 57:
From which glacier does the Indus River originate?
Answer:
The Indus River originates from the Bokhar Chu Glacier near
Mansarovar Lake.
Question 58:
From which glacier does the Ganga originate? What are its main
tributaries?
Answer: The Ganga originates from
the Gangotri Glacier at Gomukh. Yamuna, Ghaghra, Gandak, and Kosi are
its main tributaries.
Question 59:
From which glacier does the Brahmaputra originate? What are its main
tributaries?
Answer: The Brahmaputra originates
from the Chemayungdung Glacier near Mansarovar Lake. Dibang, Lohit,
and Manas are its main tributaries.
Part 11: Soil
Question 60:
What are the main soil types in the Northern Mountain Region?
Answer:
Mountain soil and forest soil are primarily found.
Question 61:
What are 'Karewas'? What is their use?
Answer:
'Karewas' are sediments deposited by glaciers in the Kashmir Valley.
Being fine soil rich in humus, they are very suitable for saffron
cultivation.
Part 12: Natural Vegetation
Question 62:
How does vegetation change with increasing altitude?
Answer:
As altitude increases, temperature decreases, so vegetation changes
from evergreen forests to tundra vegetation.
Question 63:
What type of vegetation is found at different altitudes?
Answer:
*
Semi-evergreen and deciduous forests are found in valleys and lower
slopes.
* Moist deciduous forests are found at elevations of
1000 to 2000 meters.
* Coniferous trees like pine and deodar are
found on mountain slopes.
* At higher altitudes, shrubs like
juniper and rhododendron, and alpine meadows are found.
Question 64:
What type of vegetation is predominantly found in the Eastern
Himalayas?
Answer: Due to more than 200 cm of
annual rainfall, tropical evergreen vegetation is predominantly found
in the Eastern Himalayas and Northeastern Hills.
Question 65:
What are the main National Parks in the Northern Mountain
Region?
Answer:
* Western Himalayas:
Dachigam, Hemis
* Eastern Himalayas: Kanchenjunga,
Dibru-Saikhowa, Kaziranga, Manas, Keibul Lamjao
Part 13: Wildlife
Question 66:
What animals' natural habitats are found in the Himalayan
mountains?
Answer: The natural habitats of yak,
musk deer, one-horned rhinoceros, and snow leopard are found in the
Himalayan mountains.
Part 14: Agriculture
Question 67:
What is the reason for limited agriculture in the Himalayan
region?
Answer: Agriculture is limited in the
Himalayan region due to high altitude, steep slopes, inadequate soil,
and low temperatures.
Question 68:
What crops are cultivated in the Himalayan region?
Answer:
Rice, pulses, potatoes, wheat, and temperate fruits are cultivated
here using terrace farming methods.
Question 69:
What type of farming do the tribal people in the Northeastern Hills
practice?
Answer: They follow shifting
cultivation.
Part 15: Animal Husbandry
Question 70:
What is the main occupation of the people in the Himalayan
mountainous regions?
Answer: Animal husbandry
is the main occupation of the people in the Himalayan mountainous
regions.
Question 71:
What animals are reared based on altitude?
Answer:
*
Goats and cattle are reared in valleys.
* Sheep and horses are
reared on mountain slopes.
* Yaks are reared in extremely cold
regions like Himachal and Ladakh.
Question 72:
Who are the Gujjars?
Answer: Gujjars are
nomadic pastoral tribes living in the mountain grasslands of the
Western Himalayas.
Part 16: Tourism
Question 73:
What is the reason for the high economic potential for tourism in the
Himalayan region?
Answer: The Himalayan region
has high economic potential for tourism due to favorable geographical
conditions.
Question 74:
What are the stages of tourism development in the Himalayan
region?
Answer:
1. Pilgrimage
Phase: Pilgrimage centers like Kailash, Mansarovar,
Amarnath, and Hemkund Sahib have attracted travelers for
centuries.
2. British Era: In the 19th century,
after the British recognized the favorable climate, resort towns like
Shimla, Darjeeling, Shillong, Almora, Ranikhet, Mussoorie, and
Nainital were developed.
3. Modern Adventure Phase:
After Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary conquered Mount Everest in
1953, adventure tourism like mountaineering, rock climbing, and
winter sports developed significantly.
Question 75:
What did Tenzing Norgay say about mountains?
Answer:
Tenzing Norgay said, "Mountains are not barriers; they are
gateways to the outside world."
Chapter 2: The Vast Plains
Landforms of the Earth
Question 1:
What are the diverse landforms found on the Earth's surface?
Answer:
Mountains, plains, plateaus, deserts, and valleys.
Question 2:
How are landforms formed?
Answer: They are
formed through continuous processes over millions of years by
external forces (geomorphic agents like flowing water, wind,
glaciers, and waves).
Question 3:
What are Geomorphic processes?
Answer: The
formation of landforms.
Question 4:
What is Deposition?
Answer: Sediments and rock
materials (from the disintegration of rocks) are transported by
geomorphic agents and deposited in lower areas.
Question 5:
How do rivers create depositional landforms?
Answer:
Rivers originating from higher areas carry sediments downwards,
creating depositional landforms like vast alluvial plains.
Question 6:
What is Alluvium?
Answer: Sediments brought by
rivers, including silt, sand, and gravel.
Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain (North Indian Plain)
Question 7:
Where is the Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain located?
Answer:
It is a vast physical division south of the Northern Mountains and
north of the Peninsular Plateau.
Question 8:
How was the North Indian Plain formed?
Answer:
It is an extensive alluvial plain formed by the deposition of
sediments carried by rivers.
Question 9:
What is the average depth of alluvial deposits in the North Indian
Plain?
Answer: 1000 to 2000 meters.
Question 10:
What is the global and Indian extent of the North Indian
Plain?
Answer: Approximately 3200 kilometers
from the Indus to the Ganga delta, one of the largest alluvial plains
globally. About 2400 kilometers in India.
Question 11:
What is the width of the North Indian Plain?
Answer:
It increases from east to west, ranging from 150 kilometers to 300
kilometers.
Question 12:
What are the boundaries of the North Indian Plain?
Answer:
Siwalik Ranges in the north, and irregular edges of the Peninsular
Plateau in the south.
Question 13:
What is the approximate area of the North Indian Plain?
Answer:
Approximately 7 lakh square kilometers.
Question 14:
What are the reasons this plain is suitable for agriculture?
Answer:
Fertile soil, adequate water availability, favorable climate, and
flat topography.
Question 15:
What are the regional divisions of the North Indian Plain?
Answer:
Rajasthan Plain, Punjab-Haryana Plain, Ganga Plain, Brahmaputra
Plain.
Rajasthan Plain
Question 16:
Which end of the North Indian Plain is the Rajasthan Plain located
in?
Answer: The westernmost end of the North
Indian Plain.
Question 17:
Which state contains the majority of the Thar Desert?
Answer:
Rajasthan (two-thirds).
Question 18:
What is Marusthali?
Answer: The actual desert
region.
Question 19:
What is Rajasthan Bagar?
Answer: The semi-arid
plain (semi-desert region).
Question 20:
What is the main river in the Rajasthan Plain?
Answer:
Luni (non-perennial).
Question 21:
What are the main salt lakes in the Rajasthan Plain?
Answer:
Sambhar, Didwana, Sargol.
Punjab-Haryana Plain
Question 22:
Where is the Punjab-Haryana Plain located?
Answer:
East and northeast of the Rajasthan Plain, extending up to the Yamuna
River.
Question 23:
Which river defines the eastern boundary of this plain?
Answer:
Yamuna River.
Question 24:
How was the Punjab-Haryana Plain mainly formed?
Answer:
Formed by the deposition of sediments from the Sutlej, Jhelum,
Chenab, Ravi, and Beas rivers.
Question 25:
What is the meaning of the word 'Punjab'?
Answer:
"Land of five rivers."
Question 26:
What are the main Doabs in the Punjab Plain?
Answer:
Bist-Jalandhar Doab (Beas, Sutlej), Bari Doab (Beas, Ravi), Rachna
Doab (Ravi, Chenab), Chaj Doab (Chenab, Jhelum), Sind Sagar Doab
(Indus, Jhelum-Chenab).
Ganga Plain
Question 27:
Where is the Ganga Plain located?
Answer: East
of the Punjab-Haryana Plain.
Question 28:
Where does the Ganga Plain extend from east to west?
Answer:
From Bangladesh in the east to the Yamuna River in the west.
Question 29:
What is the average elevation of the Ganga Plain?
Answer:
Approximately 200 meters above sea level.
Question 30:
What are the subdivisions of the Ganga Plain based on geographical
features?
Answer: Upper Ganga Plain, Middle
Ganga Plain, Lower Ganga Plain.
Brahmaputra Plain
Question 31:
Which part of the North Indian Plain is the Brahmaputra Plain located
in?
Answer: The easternmost part of the North
Indian Plain.
Question 32:
What are the other names for the Brahmaputra Plain?
Answer:
Brahmaputra Valley, Assam Valley, Assam Plain.
Question 33:
Where does the Brahmaputra Plain extend to?
Answer:
From Eastern Assam to west of Dhubri (near the Bangladesh border).
Question 34:
What are the approximate length and width of the Brahmaputra
Plain?
Answer: Length: approximately 720
kilometers; Width: 60-70 kilometers.
Question 35:
What are the natural boundaries of the Brahmaputra Plain?
Answer:
Eastern Himalayas (north), Patkai-Naga Hills (east),
Garo-Khasi-Jaintia Hills, Mikir Hills (south).
Question 36:
How are alluvial fans formed in the Brahmaputra Plain?
Answer:
When rivers enter the plains from the mountains, their speed
decreases, and sediments are deposited in a fan shape.
Question 37:
What are Braided Rivers?
Answer: Rivers with
multiple channels.
Question 38:
How are Meanders formed?
Answer: When a river
flows in a winding, looping course, forming curves, typically when
rivers flow over gentle slopes and alluvial deposits obstruct the
flow.
Question 39:
How are Ox-Bow Lakes formed?
Answer: Curved
sections that separate from the main river when it flows straight,
forming isolated water bodies.
Question 40:
How are Riverine Islands formed?
Answer:
Islands formed in river channels due to sediment deposition.
Question 41:
What are Levees?
Answer: Ridges formed along
river banks due to alluvial deposition during floods.
Question 42:
How are Deltas formed?
Answer: Roughly
triangular landforms formed by the deposition of sediments between
distributaries near the mouth of a river, where its velocity
decreases.
Physiographic Divisions of the North Indian Plain (North to South)
Question 43:
What are the physiographic divisions of the North Indian Plain from
north to south?
Answer: Bhabar, Tarai, Alluvial
Plains (Bhangar, Khadar).
Question 44:
What are the characteristics of the Bhabar region?
Answer:
A narrow zone (8-10 km wide) found where the slope ends, parallel to
the Siwalik Range. Formed by the deposition of rocks and pebbles from
mountain rivers. Rivers flow beneath the rocks and pebbles, not
visible.
Question 45:
What are the characteristics of the Tarai region?
Answer:
A marshy and wet area (10-20 km wide), parallel to the Bhabar zone.
Rivers that disappear in Bhabar reappear here. Rich in natural
vegetation, habitat for diverse wildlife.
Question 46:
What are the main divisions of the alluvial plains, and what are
their characteristics?
Answer: Bhangar (older
alluvial deposits), Khadar (newer alluvial deposits).
Climate of the North Indian Plain
Question 47:
When does winter begin in the North Indian Plain?
Answer:
By mid-November.
Question 48:
What are the coldest months in winter?
Answer:
December and January.
Question 49:
What are the reasons for extreme cold during winter in the North
Indian Plain?
Answer: Far from the moderating
influence of oceans (continental climate), snowfall in the nearby
Himalayas causes severe cold waves, cold winds from Western Asia
cause frost, fog, and cold waves in the western parts, and the
southward apparent movement of the sun.
Question 50:
What is 'Loo'?
Answer: Hot, dry, and
suffocating winds blowing from the Rajasthan desert into the Ganga
Plain during May-June, increasing the temperature.
Question 51:
How many branches do the southwest monsoon winds enter, and what are
they?
Answer: Two branches: Arabian Sea branch
and Bay of Bengal branch.
Question 52:
What is the reason for low monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan?
Answer:
Due to the Aravalli mountain ranges being parallel to the direction
of the winds.
Question 53:
How is the northeast monsoon period known?
Answer:
Retreating Monsoon.
Question 54:
What is 'October Heat'?
Answer: Suffocating
weather due to high temperatures and humidity in the atmosphere.
Question 55:
Which regions receive heavy rainfall during the northeast monsoon
period?
Answer: Low-pressure cyclonic storms in
the Bay of Bengal cause heavy rainfall on the eastern coast
(especially Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh).
Natural Vegetation of the North Indian Plain
Question 56:
What are the prominent types of vegetation in the North Indian
Plain?
Answer: Tropical deciduous forests,
tropical thorn forests, and swamp forests.
Question 57:
How are tropical deciduous forests classified?
Answer:
Dry deciduous forests and moist deciduous forests.
Question 58:
What are the characteristics of dry deciduous forests?
Answer:
Annual rainfall 70-100 cm. Trees shed leaves for 6-8 weeks during the
dry season. Found in the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Question 59:
What are the main trees in moist deciduous forests?
Answer:
Teak, Sal, Shisham, Mahua, Amla, Sandalwood.
Question 60:
Where are tropical thorn forests found?
Answer:
Widespread in semi-arid regions of southwestern Punjab, Haryana,
Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, which receive low rainfall.
Question 61:
What is the main natural vegetation in Sundarbans?
Answer:
Mangroves.
Question 62:
What is the natural habitat of the Royal Bengal Tiger?
Answer:
Sundarbans.
Main Soil Types in the North Indian Plain
Question 63:
What is the most widespread soil type in the North Indian
Plain?
Answer: Alluvial Soil.
Question 64:
What are the main divisions of alluvial soil in the Ganga Plain, and
what is their characteristic?
Answer: Khadar
(new, more fertile), Bhangar (old, less fertile).
Question 65:
Where is red soil found?
Answer: In the
southern part of the Middle Ganga Plain.
Question 66:
What causes the red color of red soil?
Answer:
Presence of iron.
Question 67:
Where is saline soil found?
Answer: In the
Sundarbans delta region.
Question 68:
Where is peat soil found?
Answer: In the
coastal areas of West Bengal.
Question 69:
Where is arid soil widely found?
Answer: In the
western parts (Rajasthan).
Human Life in the North Indian Plain
Question 70:
What are the main features influencing human life in the North Indian
Plain?
Answer: Fertile alluvial soil, flat
topography, perennial rivers, and favorable climate.
Question 71:
What is the characteristic of the population in the North Indian
Plain?
Answer: Only one-fourth of the country's
total area, but more than half of India's total population resides
here.
Question 72:
Why is this region considered the granary of India?
Answer:
Extensive agriculture and irrigation make it the granary of India.
Question 73:
What are the main cropping seasons in the North Indian Plain?
Answer:
Kharif (June-September), Rabi (October-March), Zaid (April-June).
Question 74:
What are the characteristics of Kharif crops?
Answer:
Tropical crops of the June-September period – rice, cotton, jute,
bajra, arhar. Associated with the southwest monsoon.
Question 75:
What are the characteristics of Rabi crops?
Answer:
Temperate-subtropical crops of the October-March period – wheat,
gram, mustard, barley. They begin in winter.
Question 76:
What are the characteristics of Zaid crops?
Answer:
Vegetables, fruits, and fodder crops of the April-June period.
Short-duration crops, cultivated after Rabi crops.
Social
Science I
Chapter 1: From Stone Age
Onwards
Questions & Answers
Part 1: Early Human History
Question 1:
Why does this chapter start with the Stone Age?
Answer:
This chapter starts from the Stone Age to explain how the basic
characteristics of human life were formed.
Question 2:
How do archaeologists divide human history into phases?
Answer:
Archaeologists divide human history into various phases based on the
materials humans used to make tools.
Part 2: The Stone Age
Question 3:
What is meant by the Stone Age?
Answer: The
Stone Age is the period when humans primarily used stones as weapons
and tools.
Question 4:
What is the reason for this period being named the Stone Age?
Answer:
This period was named the Stone Age because stones were the main
weapons and tools for humans.
Question 5:
How is the Stone Age classified?
Answer: Based
on the methods of making stone tools, the Stone Age is classified
into three periods:
1. Palaeolithic Age
2. Mesolithic
Age
3. Neolithic Age
Part 3:
Palaeolithic Age (Old Stone Age)
Tools
Question 6:
How did early humans initially use stones?
Answer:
Early humans initially had no specific weapons. They mainly used
stones for throwing.
Question 7:
What were the main tools later made by Palaeolithic man?
Answer:
Later, humans began to make stone axes, spears, and good stone
needles.
Question 8:
What was the main characteristic of tools in the Palaeolithic
Age?
Answer: The main characteristic of this
period was the use of rough and unpolished stone tools.
Question 9:
What are the three main stages seen in the use of tools?
Answer:
1.
Usage: Using available stones without altering their
shape.
2. Modification: Changing the shape of
stones according to need.
3. Standardization:
Making specific tools for each purpose.
Question 10:
What are examples of tools from the Palaeolithic Age?
Answer:
Pebble tools, biface core tools, flake tools, chopper-chopping tools,
and tools made using blade technology are examples.
Question 11:
What other material did humans use for tools towards the end of the
Palaeolithic Age?
Answer: Towards the end of
this period, humans also started using bone tools.
Question 12:
What are 'core' and 'flake'?
Answer: When a
stone is broken, the largest piece is called 'core', and the smaller
pieces are called 'flake'. Both were used to make tools.
Question 13:
What were Palaeolithic tools mainly used for?
Answer:
These tools were mainly used to protect themselves from animals and
for hunting.
Life and Society
Question 14:
Where did Palaeolithic humans live?
Answer:
They lived in caves and open spaces.
Question 15:
What were the main livelihoods of Palaeolithic humans?
Answer:
Hunting and gathering were their main livelihoods.
Question 16:
What were the basic components of Palaeolithic society?
Answer:
Small groups of less than a hundred members, connected by blood
relations, were the basic components of Palaeolithic society.
Question 17:
How was the division of labor between men and women in the
Palaeolithic Age?
Answer: Men were mainly
involved in hunting. Women were involved in gathering activities.
Question 18:
Did Palaeolithic humans store food?
Answer: No.
They did not store food.
Question 19:
What was the lifestyle of Palaeolithic humans?
Answer:
They lived a nomadic life.
Artworks
Question 20:
What do the artworks of the Palaeolithic Age indicate?
Answer:
These artworks indicate human communication skills, artistic taste,
and intellectual development.
Question 21:
What are examples of artworks from the Palaeolithic Age?
Answer:
Cave paintings depicting animals and women, the Venus sculpture made
of mammoth ivory from Lascaux, and sculptures carved on bones from La
Garma Cave are examples.
Question 22:
How were the colors used in cave paintings made?
Answer:
Colors were made by crushing plants, tree bark, and fruits and mixing
them with red stone powder.
Question 23:
How were the paintings in caves drawn?
Answer:
These paintings were drawn on the inner walls and ceilings of caves
where sunlight did not reach, using stone needles and sharp tools.
Question 24:
In which parts of the caves have paintings been found?
Answer:
Paintings have been found on the inner walls and even ceilings of the
caves.
Question 25:
What do the art forms of the Palaeolithic Age testify to?
Answer:
These art forms testify to the intellectual capacity, technology, and
artistic abilities of early humans.
Part 4: Mesolithic Age (Middle Stone Age)
Question 26:
What is the Mesolithic Age?
Answer: The
Mesolithic Age is a transitional period from the Palaeolithic Age to
the Neolithic Age.
Question 27:
What is the meaning of the term 'Mesolithic'?
Answer:
The term 'Mesolithic' is derived from Greek words, where 'mesos'
means middle and 'lithos' means stone.
Tools
Question 28:
What was the characteristic feature of tools in the Mesolithic
Age?
Answer: The characteristic feature of this
period was the use of very small 'microliths'. These were smaller
than Palaeolithic tools.
Life and Society
Question 29:
What were the main livelihoods in the Mesolithic Age?
Answer:
Hunting and gathering continued to be the main livelihoods.
Question 30:
What signs of change regarding animals are seen in the Mesolithic
Age?
Answer: Signs of domestication of animals
begin to appear in this period.
Question 31:
What are other features of Mesolithic society?
Answer:
The presence of entertainment and gender-based division of labor were
characteristics of this period.
Communication and Art
Question 32:
Where is the art and communication of the Mesolithic Age primarily
seen?
Answer: The development of human
communication, which began towards the end of the Palaeolithic Age,
is primarily seen in India during the Mesolithic Age.
Question 33:
What Indian cave sites provide insight into Mesolithic life?
Answer:
Artworks from cave sites in Bhimbetka, Lakhajor, and Kathotia in
Madhya Pradesh provide a clear understanding of Mesolithic life.
Sites
Question 34:
Why is the site of Star Carr important?
Answer:
Star Carr in England was an open settlement. Organic remains, stone
and bone tools, and evidence of early woodworking have been found
there. It is believed to have been a temporary settlement.
Question 35:
What are the characteristics of the Mesolithic site of Sarai Nahar
Rai?
Answer: At Sarai Nahar Rai in Uttar
Pradesh, microliths, evidence of stored seeds, and animal hides used
as clothing have been found.
Part 5: Neolithic Age (New Stone Age)
Question 36:
What is the Neolithic Age?
Answer: The
Neolithic Age is the period when fundamental changes occurred in
human life.
Question 37:
What is the meaning of the term 'Neolithic'?
Answer:
The term 'Neolithic' originated from Greek words, where 'neos' means
new and 'lithos' means stone.
Question 38:
What two major changes did Gordon Childe mention in his book?
Answer:
He mentioned two major changes: the beginning of agriculture and the
domestication of animals.
Major Changes
Question 39:
What were the most important changes in the Neolithic Age?
Answer:
1.
Beginning of agriculture
2. Domestication of animals
3.
Permanent food availability
4. Development of polished tools
5.
Formation of permanent settlements
6. Emergence of agricultural
villages
7. Pottery making
8. Occupational
specialization
9. Formation of new social structures
Question 40:
What change did agriculture and animal domestication bring to human
life?
Answer: Agriculture and animal
domestication ensured a stable food supply.
Question 41:
What factors led to the beginning of agriculture and animal
domestication?
Answer:
1. Population
growth
2. Increase in human settlements
3. Complex social
structures
4. Food shortage
5. Changes in technology
Question 42:
Why did Neolithic humans develop polished tools?
Answer:
Polished tools were developed for cultivating land, ploughing soil,
and cutting trees.
Question 43:
What led to the formation of permanent settlements and agricultural
villages?
Answer: Stable food availability led
to permanent settlements and the emergence of agricultural villages.
Question 44:
What was the importance of pottery making?
Answer:
The advent of pottery making and the use of mud bricks helped in
storing grains.
Question 45:
What is occupational specialization? How did it develop in the
Neolithic Age?
Answer: With increased
agricultural production, some members of society shifted from farming
to other occupations like pottery making and weaving. This is
occupational specialization.
Question 46:
What impact did the emergence of different occupational groups have
on social formation?
Answer: With the formation
of different occupational groups, new elements were added to the
social structure.
Question 47:
In which period are the foundations of today's human progress
rooted?
Answer: The foundations of present-day
human progress are rooted in the changes of the Neolithic Age.
Fertile Crescent and Major Sites
Question 48:
What is the Fertile Crescent?
Answer: The main
region where agriculture began is called the Fertile Crescent. On
maps, it is marked in the shape of a crescent.
Question 49:
What are the major Neolithic sites?
Answer:
Jericho, Jarmo, Ali Kosh, and Mehrgarh are the major Neolithic sites.
Question 50:
What are the characteristics of Neolithic life in Jarmo?
Answer:
In Jarmo, located in the Kurdish Hills of Iraq, barley and wheat were
cultivated. Sheep were domesticated. Small huts were present.
Artworks in the form of a pregnant woman have also been found.
Question 51:
What is the importance of Mehrgarh?
Answer: In
Mehrgarh, now in Pakistan, major characteristics of the Neolithic
Age, such as the domestication of animals and plants, began. It is
known as the 'Bread Basket of Baluchistan'.
Part 6: Metal Age
Question 52:
What is the Metal Age?
Answer: The Metal Age is
the period that began when humans started using metals.
Copper Age
Question 53:
What is the Copper Age?
Answer: The Copper Age
is the period when humans learned to transform raw copper into
weapons and tools.
Question 54:
From where did the earliest evidence of copper use come?
Answer:
Evidence of copper use around 7000 BCE has been found from Çatalhöyük
in Turkey, Cayönü in Syria, and Ali Kosh in Iran.
Question 55:
What were the main advantages of copper tools over stone
tools?
Answer: Copper tools were easier to
shape as needed, and they were also more durable.
Chalcolithic Age
Question 56:
What is the Chalcolithic Age?
Answer: The
Chalcolithic Age is the period when copper tools were used alongside
stone tools.
Question 57:
Give examples of places in India where remnants of the Chalcolithic
Age have been found.
Answer: Pot burials found
in Daimabad, Maharashtra, and artworks in Nevasa are examples of the
Chalcolithic Age.
Bronze Age
Question 58:
What is bronze?
Answer: Bronze is an alloy made
by mixing copper and tin.
Question 59:
What is the main advantage of bronze over copper?
Answer:
Bronze is stronger than copper.
Question 60:
What did the Bronze Age mark the beginning of in human
history?
Answer: The Bronze Age marked the
beginning of urban life.
Question 61:
What is urbanization?
Answer: Urbanization
refers to the formation of densely populated areas where the majority
of people are engaged in non-agricultural activities such as
handicrafts and trade.
Question 62:
What are the main characteristics of urbanization?
Answer:
1.
High population density
2. Increase in non-agricultural
occupations
3. Wide streets
4. Public buildings
5.
Better facilities
6. Busy life
7. Presence of entertainment
Question 63:
Which Indian civilization is part of the Bronze Age?
Answer:
The Harappan Civilization is the main civilization included in the
Bronze Age in India.
Question 64:
What are the evidences of urbanization in the Harappan
Civilization?
Answer: Well-planned public
buildings, large bathing pools, houses, streets, drains, granaries,
various artifacts, and evidence of trade from cities like Harappa,
Mohenjo-Daro, and Lothal are evidences of urbanization.
Part 7: Vedic Period
Question 65:
After the decline of which civilization did the Vedic period
emerge?
Answer: The Vedic period emerged after
the decline of the Harappan Civilization.
Question 66:
Who were the Aryans?
Answer: The Aryans were a
group of people who spoke Indo-European languages like Sanskrit,
Latin, Greek, German, English, Italian, Spanish, and French.
Question 67:
Which region did the Aryans enter?
Answer: They
entered the Sapta Sindhu region, or Northwestern India.
Question 68:
On what basis is it believed that the Aryans were from Central
Asia?
Answer: It is believed they were from
Central Asia based on linguistic evidence.
Question 69:
What is the time span of the Vedic period?
Answer:
The Vedic period spans approximately from 1500 BCE to 600 BCE.
Question 70:
What is the meaning of the word 'Veda'?
Answer:
'Veda' means knowledge.
Question 71:
From where do we get information about the Vedic period?
Answer:
Information about the Vedic period is obtained from the Vedas.
Question 72:
What are the main texts included in Vedic literature?
Answer:
1.
Four Vedas – Rigveda, Yajurveda, Samaveda, Atharvaveda
2.
Brahmanas
3. Aranyakas
4. Upanishads
Question 73:
How is the Vedic period divided into two sections?
Answer:
1.
Early Vedic Period
2. Later Vedic Period
Part 8: Early Vedic Period
Question 74:
Which Veda was composed during the Early Vedic Period?
Answer:
The Rigveda was composed during the Early Vedic Period.
Question 75:
What was the main settlement area of the Early Vedic people?
Answer:
The Sapta Sindhu region was the main settlement area of the Early
Vedic people.
Question 76:
What was the economy like in the Early Vedic Period?
Answer:
The economy was based on pastoral life.
Question 77:
What was the lifestyle in the Early Vedic Period?
Answer:
They followed a semi-nomadic lifestyle.
Question 78:
What was the status of women in the Early Vedic Period?
Answer:
The status of women was relatively high.
Question 79:
How did the Early Vedic people prepare land for agriculture?
Answer:
They prepared land for cultivation by clearing and burning forests.
Question 80:
What was the structure of Early Vedic society?
Answer:
It was a society composed of several tribes.
Question 81:
How were rituals performed in the Early Vedic Period?
Answer:
Rituals were simple. The head of the family performed them.
Question 82:
What type of deities did the Early Vedic people worship?
Answer:
They worshipped deities representing natural forces.
Part 9: Later Vedic Period
Question 83:
Which Vedas were composed in the Later Vedic Period?
Answer:
Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda were composed in the Later Vedic
Period.
Question 84:
To where did the settlement area of the Aryans expand during the
Later Vedic Period?
Answer: Their settlement
area expanded to the Ganga Plain.
Question 85:
What was the major change in the economy during the Later Vedic
Period?
Answer: Agriculture gained more
importance.
Question 86:
What was the lifestyle like in the Later Vedic Period?
Answer:
A settled lifestyle developed during this period.
Question 87:
What change occurred in the status of women during the Later Vedic
Period?
Answer: The status of women declined.
Question 88:
What metal's use became prominent in the Later Vedic Period?
Answer:
The use of iron became prominent in this period.
Question 89:
How did the social system change in the Later Vedic Period?
Answer:
The Varna system became stronger.
Question 90:
What were the four Varnas in the Varna system?
Answer:
1.
Brahmins
2. Kshatriyas
3. Vaishyas
4. Shudras
Question 91:
What was the duty of the Brahmins?
Answer: The
duty of Brahmins was to perform priestly rituals.
Question 92:
What was the duty of the Kshatriyas?
Answer:
The duty of Kshatriyas was to rule and protect the kingdom.
Question 93:
What was the main occupation of the Vaishyas?
Answer:
Agriculture and trade were the main occupations of the Vaishyas.
Question 94:
What was the position of the Shudras?
Answer:
The duty of the Shudras was to serve the other three Varnas.
Question 95:
What change occurred in the rituals during the Later Vedic
Period?
Answer: Rituals became complex and
expensive. They also became the privilege of a specific class.
Question 96:
What change occurred in the worship practices during the Later Vedic
Period?
Answer: New deities began to be
worshipped.
Question 97:
What development occurred in the craft sector during the Later Vedic
Period?
Answer: The beginning of various crafts
took place during this period.
Chapter 2: Ideologies and Early Kingdoms
Sixth Century BCE: A Period of Intellectual and Political Change
Question 1:
Why was the 6th century BCE a remarkable period in world
history?
Answer: Because it was marked by the
spread of new ideas.
Question 2:
Who were the major thinkers of the 6th century BCE?
Answer:
Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama Buddha (India), Zarathushtra (Iran),
Confucius (China), Heraclitus (Greece).
Question 3:
What changes occurred globally during this period?
Answer:
Major changes occurred in social, political, and economic spheres,
and new political systems emerged.
Ideological Revolution in the Ganga Valley (India)
Question 4:
Where did new ideas mainly emerge in India?
Answer:
In the Ganga Valley.
Question 5:
What were the material conditions in the Ganga Valley?
Answer:
Widespread use of iron tools, increased agricultural production, and
growth of trade and cities.
Question 6:
What was the basis of the new socio-economic system that clashed with
Vedic practices?
Answer: It was based on
agriculture and cattle.
Question 7:
Which aspect of Vedic rituals negatively affected the cattle-based
economy and prompted people to question them?
Answer:
Rituals involving animal sacrifice.
Question 8:
Which group, having achieved material prosperity through trade in the
6th century BCE, sought a higher social status?
Answer:
The Vaishyas.
Question 9:
What was the social background that led to the formation of new
ideological concepts like Jainism and Buddhism?
Answer:
Social changes where Vaishyas, who achieved material prosperity
through trade, sought higher social status, and new groups like
wealthy Grihapatis emerged outside the Varna system and gained
status.
Jainism
Question 10:
What is the meaning of the word 'Tirthankara'?
Answer:
'One who attained enlightenment through asceticism'.
Question 11:
How many Tirthankaras were there in Jainism?
Answer:
24 Tirthankaras.
Question 12:
Who was the 23rd Tirthankara?
Answer:
Parshvanatha.
Question 13:
Who was the 24th and last Tirthankara?
Answer:
Vardhamana Mahavira.
Question 14:
Where was Vardhamana Mahavira born?
Answer: In
Kundagrama, near Vaishali in Bihar.
Question 15:
Where did Vardhamana Mahavira attain Nirvana?
Answer:
In Pava (near Patna).
Question 16:
What were the other names by which Vardhamana Mahavira was
known?
Answer: Mahavira, Jina.
Question 17:
Which language did Vardhamana Mahavira use to spread Jain
principles?
Answer: Prakrit languages.
Question 18:
What was said about the authority of Vedas in Jain
principles?
Answer: The authority of Vedas was
denied.
Question 19:
What are the three principles for attaining 'Moksha' (salvation) in
Jainism, and how are they known?
Answer: Right
faith, right knowledge, right conduct. These are known as
'Triratnas'.
Question 20:
What are the five principles in Jainism for monks and nuns?
Answer:
Do not harm any living being, do not lie, do not steal, do not own
property, practice celibacy.
Question 21:
Which concept was given more importance in Jainism?
Answer:
Ahimsa (non-violence).
Question 22:
Into what divisions did Jainism later split?
Answer:
It later split into 'Svetambaras' and 'Digambaras'.
Question 23:
Which was an important center for Jainism in Kerala?
Answer:
Wayanad.
Buddhism
Question 24:
What was the real name of Gautama Buddha?
Answer:
Siddhartha.
Question 25:
Where was Gautama Buddha born?
Answer: In
Lumbini (Kapilavastu), Nepal.
Question 26:
What incident prompted Gautama Buddha to seek the cause of
suffering?
Answer: After seeing an old man, a
sick person, a corpse, and a serene ascetic.
Question 27:
Where did Gautama Buddha attain enlightenment?
Answer:
In Bodh Gaya (Bihar).
Question 28:
Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?
Answer:
In Sarnath.
Question 29:
Where did Buddha attain Nirvana?
Answer: In
Kusinara.
Question 30:
How were Buddha's teachings and principles?
Answer:
Simple and against the caste system.
Question 31:
Which language did Buddha use to spread his ideas?
Answer:
Pali, the language of common people.
Question 32:
What was one reason for the importance of Buddha's concept of
'Ahimsa' at that time?
Answer: Because cattle
were needed for agriculture and transport, and Vedic rituals
involving animal killing hindered this.
Question 33:
What are the Four Noble Truths in Buddha's teachings?
Answer:
Life is full of suffering; desire is the cause of suffering;
suffering disappears if desire is destroyed; to achieve this, one
must follow the Eightfold Path.
Question 34:
What is the Eightfold Path?
Answer: Right view,
right intention, right speech, right action, right livelihood, right
effort, right mindfulness, right concentration.
Question 35:
What was the 'Middle Path' advocated by Buddha?
Answer:
Buddha rejected extreme asceticism and luxurious living, suggesting a
middle path between them.
Question 36:
According to Buddha's social teachings (Digha Nikaya), how should
husband and wife live in family life?
Answer:
They should live with mutual respect and fulfill their duties
correctly.
Question 37:
How did Buddha teach that employers should treat their servants and
workers?
Answer: They should treat them
courteously, not overburden them, provide adequate food, fair wages,
and care for them when sick.
Question 38:
What are Stupas?
Answer: Hemispherical
buildings, rich in carvings, constructed at places where Buddha's
relics or possessions were interred.
Question 39:
What are examples of famous Stupas?
Answer:
Sanchi and Sarnath Stupas.
Question 40:
Why were Sanghas formed?
Answer: Sanghas were
monastic communities formed to propagate Buddhism.
Question 41:
Who was allowed to join the Sangha?
Answer: All
people, irrespective of caste and gender, were admitted to the
Sangha.
Question 42:
How were women and men in the Sangha called?
Answer:
Women were known as 'Bhikkhunis' and men as 'Bhikkhus'.
Question 43:
How were decisions made in the Sangha?
Answer:
Decisions were made through discussions and majority opinion.
Question 44:
What did Buddha teach would happen to an individual when joining the
Sangha?
Answer: That individual name, caste,
status, and family would be lost, and one would become one with the
ocean.
Question 45:
Into what divisions did Buddhism later split?
Answer:
It later split into Mahayana and Hinayana.
Question 46:
To which countries did Buddhism spread?
Answer:
It spread to Sri Lanka, China, Japan, Burma, Myanmar, Tibet,
Afghanistan, and Southeast Asia.
Question 47:
What are some indications of Buddhist influence in Kerala?
Answer:
The heroine Manimekhala adopted Buddhism, Buddhist statues and relics
have been found, and some Malayalam words/place names indicate
Buddhist influence.
Materialism
Question 48:
Whose contemporary was Materialism?
Answer: It
was contemporary to Buddha.
Question 49:
Who was the proponent of Materialism?
Answer:
Ajita Kesakambalin.
Question 50:
What concept did Materialists consider meaningless?
Answer:
All religious practices.
Question 51:
According to Materialism, what was said about 'this world' and 'the
other world'?
Answer: There is no 'this world'
and 'the other world'.
Question 52:
What did Materialists believe the human body was made of, and what
would happen upon death?
Answer: They believed
the human body is made of four elements, and upon death, they return
and merge with the earth.
Janapadas and Mahajanapadas: Emergence of Early Kingdoms
Question 53:
What is the meaning of the word 'Janapada'?
Answer:
'Place where people settled'.
Question 54:
How were Janapadas formed?
Answer: They were
formed when permanent settlements emerged after clearing forests for
agricultural fields and habitations.
Question 55:
By what name was the social system prevalent during the Vedic period
known?
Answer: Tribal social system ('Jana').
Question 56:
What caused the formation of Mahajanapadas?
Answer:
Extensive agriculture led tribal communities to settle permanently,
which formed Janapadas.
Question 57:
What did agricultural production in Janapadas foster?
Answer:
Trade and the development of cities.
Question 58:
How many political entities does the Buddhist text Anguttara Nikaya
mention?
Answer: 16 political entities.
Question 59:
How do historians describe these changes?
Answer:
As 'Second Urbanization'.
Question 60:
What are some examples of cities mentioned in Digha Nikaya?
Answer:
Champa, Rajagriha, Sravasti, Saketa, Kaushambi, Varanasi.
Question 61:
What was the administrative system in the Mahajanapadas like?
Answer:
A king, an administrative system, and a standing army developed.
Question 62:
How were taxes referred to in Pali texts?
Answer:
As 'Bali' and 'Bhaga'.
Question 63:
In what form were taxes mainly paid?
Answer: In
the form of grains and cattle.
Question 64:
How did forest dwellers and artisans pay taxes?
Answer:
Forest dwellers provided forest products, and artisans provided
services.
Question 65:
Which officials are mentioned in Satapatha Brahmana as assisting the
king?
Answer: Senani, Purohit, Gramani.
Question 66:
What was a key feature of the Mahajanapadas?
Answer:
They had forts and capital cities (e.g., the wall of Kaushambi).
Rise of Magadha
Question 67:
How did Magadha emerge as a dominant power among the 16
Mahajanapadas?
Answer: Due to continuous wars
for dominance.
Question 68:
What were the geographical reasons for Magadha's growth?
Answer:
A fertile region receiving good rainfall, large deposits of iron ore
(providing materials for tools and weapons), abundance of elephants
in forests (crucial for warfare), and the Ganga and its tributaries
facilitated easy transport of goods.
Question 69:
Who were the main rulers of Magadha?
Answer:
Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.
Question 70:
What were the main dynasties that ruled Magadha?
Answer:
Haryanka Dynasty (Bimbisara, Ajatashatru), Shishunaga Dynasty
(Shishunaga), Nanda Dynasty (Mahapadmananda).
From Magadha to Mauryan Empire
Question 71:
Who founded the Mauryan Empire, and in what year?
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire in 321 BCE, defeating
the last Nanda ruler, Dhana Nanda.
Question 72:
According to Megasthenes' description, what were the features of
Pataliputra?
Answer: A large and beautiful city
with walls, 64 gates, and many towers; houses made of wood and mud
with two or three stories, and a wooden royal palace.
Question 73:
What are the main historical sources about the Mauryan
Empire?
Answer: Megasthenes' description,
Kautilya's Arthashastra, and the inscriptions and coins of Emperor
Ashoka.
Question 74:
Who discovered Kautilya's Arthashastra?
Answer:
R. Shamasastry.
Question 75:
According to the 'Saptanga Siddhanta' in Arthashastra, a kingdom
depends on which seven elements?
Answer: Swami
(King), Amatya (Ministers), Janapada (Land and People), Durga (Fort),
Kosha (Treasury), Danda (Justice), Mitra (Friendly States).
Mauryan Administration
Question 76:
Who was the most important ruler of the Mauryan Empire?
Answer:
Emperor Ashoka.
Question 77:
Which region did Ashoka conquer and later cause him to renounce
war?
Answer: Kalinga (now Odisha).
Question 78:
What does the Rummindei (Lumbini) inscription say?
Answer:
It speaks about Ashoka's visit to Buddha's birthplace, the erection
of a stupa, and tax exemptions granted to Lumbini (exempted from
'bali' and only one-eighth of the produce as 'bhaga').
Question 79:
Where was the capital of the Mauryan Empire?
Answer:
Pataliputra.
Question 80:
What were the provincial capitals of the Mauryan Empire?
Answer:
Taxila (Northern Province), Ujjain (Western Province), Suvarnagiri
(Southern Province), Kalinga Tosali (Eastern Province).
Question 81:
How was the Mauryan army organized?
Answer: A
well-organized army including infantry, cavalry, chariots, elephants,
and a navy.
Question 82:
Who first deciphered Ashoka's inscriptions, and in what year?
Answer:
James Prinsep in 1838.
Question 83:
How was the king referred to in most of Ashoka's
inscriptions?
Answer: As 'Devanampiya' (beloved
of the gods).
Question 84:
In which inscriptions is the name 'Ashoka' found?
Answer:
In the Maski, Udegolam, and Nittur inscriptions (Karnataka).
Question 85:
What is the importance of the Brahmi script?
Answer:
It is the origin of most modern Indian scripts (Hindi, Bengali,
Malayalam, Tamil).
Question 86:
What was 'Ashoka Dhamma'?
Answer: The ideas
promoted by Ashoka for peace and coexistence.
Question 87:
What were the main principles of Ashoka Dhamma?
Answer:
Tolerance towards other religions, respect for elders and teachers,
kindness to slaves and the sick.
Question 88:
What did historian Romila Thapar say about Ashoka's Dhamma?
Answer:
She believed it was an attempt to unite a large empire and diverse
social groups.
Growth of Trade
Question 89:
What coins were used for trade?
Answer:
Punch-marked coins (silver, copper).
Question 90:
What were the modes of transport used to move goods?
Answer:
Land, sea, and rivers.
Question 91:
What were the main trade commodities?
Answer:
Grains, textiles, metals.
Question 92:
What terms were used to refer to traders?
Answer:
'Settis', 'Sarthavahakas'.
Question 93:
What caused trade to decline after the fall of the Roman
Empire?
Answer: When Westerners learned silk
manufacturing from the Chinese.
Formation of States in Greece
Question 94:
How were city-states formed in Greece?
Answer:
Villages came together for security and governance.
Question 95:
What did city-states comprise?
Answer: A city
and its surrounding agricultural villages.
Question 96:
What provided natural boundaries to the Greek city-states?
Answer:
Hills and mountains, some were islands.
Question 97:
Where were the capitals of Greek cities located?
Answer:
On high hills.
Question 98:
What were the main Greek city-states?
Answer:
Athens, Sparta, Corinth, Thebes.
Question 99:
How was the administrative system in Athens 2500 years ago?
Answer:
It was similar to modern democracy, and different from other
city-states.
Question 100:
Who were the citizens of Athens?
Answer: All
men over 30 years old, except slaves.
Question 101:
For what purpose did the assembly of citizens in Athens meet?
Answer:
To make decisions.
Question 102:
Who were not considered citizens in Athens?
Answer:
Women, artisans, and foreign traders.
Question 103:
Why was Athens a wealthy city-state?
Answer:
Due to trade in the Mediterranean region.
Question 104:
What attracted new ideas and thinkers to Athens?
Answer:
Their expertise in shipbuilding and seafaring.
Question 105:
To where did Herodotus, known as the "Father of History",
come?
Answer: To Athens.
Social Science I – Chapter 4
Distribution of Powers in the Indian Constitution
Questions and Answers
Part 1: Formation of Independent India
Q1: When did
India get independence?
A: India
got independence on 15 August 1947.
Q2: To whom
did Jawaharlal Nehru make his “Tryst with Destiny” speech?
A: He
made that speech to the Constituent Assembly.
Q3: What did
Nehru ask for in that speech?
A: He
asked for the creation of a democratic government and a welfare
system. He also called for ending discrimination, social evils, and
human rights violations under British rule.
Q4: What were
the main promises of the Constituent Assembly?
A: The
main promises were democratic government and a welfare state.
Part 2: Objective Resolution
Q5: When was
the Objective Resolution presented? Who presented it?
A: Jawaharlal
Nehru presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly
on 13 December 1946.
Q6: What were
the main ideals in the Objective Resolution?
A: The
main ideals were:
To make India a free and sovereign republic and frame a Constitution.
To form a Union of former British Indian areas, Indian states, and other willing parts.
To make the units of the Union self-governing in matters not given to the Centre.
To make all powers come from the people.
To ensure social, economic, and political justice.
To guarantee equality in status, opportunity, and before law.
To provide basic freedoms.
Q7: What
basic freedoms were promised in the Objective Resolution?
A: Freedom
of speech, expression, belief, worship, occupation, association, and
assembly were promised, subject to law and public morality.
Q8: Where
were the ideas of the Objective Resolution included in the
Constitution?
A: The ideas were
included in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Part 3: Features of the Indian Constitution
Q9: Who
prepared the draft of the Indian Constitution? When was the committee
formed?
A: The Drafting Committee
prepared the draft of the Indian Constitution. It was formed on 6
December 1946 on the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission.
Q10: How much
time did it take to make the Constitution?
A: It
took 2 years, 11 months, and 17 days from 9 December 1946.
Q11: When was
the Indian Constitution adopted? When did it come into force?
A: It
was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January
1950.
Q12: How many
Parts, Articles, and Schedules were there in the original
Constitution?
A: In the
beginning, it had 22 Parts, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules.
Q13: What are
the main features of the Indian Constitution?
A: The
main features are:
Largest written Constitution
Parliamentary democracy
Sovereignty of the people
A system that is both rigid and flexible
Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Directive Principles of State Policy
Bicameral legislature
Federal system with a strong Centre
Independent and impartial judiciary
Independent constitutional bodies
Q14: Why is
the Indian Constitution called the largest written
Constitution?
A: It is called the
largest written Constitution because it is very detailed, has about
15 lakh words, and covers the needs of a large and diverse country.
Q15: In
parliamentary democracy, who selects the executive?
A: The
members of the executive are chosen from the legislature, and the
legislature controls the executive.
Q16: What is
a bicameral legislature?
A: A
bicameral legislature is a law-making body with two Houses: Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha represents the people, and Rajya Sabha
represents the states.
Part 4: Indian Federalism
Q17: What is
federalism?
A: Federalism is a
system of government in which powers are divided between the Central
government and the State governments according to the Constitution.
Q18: Why did
India adopt the federal system?
A: India
adopted federalism for the following reasons:
To strengthen democracy by sharing power.
To give regional representation and maintain unity in diversity.
To prevent separatist tendencies.
To help different levels of government work together for economic progress.
To make democracy more meaningful.
To include social, regional, and geographical diversity.
Q19: What are
the main features of Indian federalism?
A: The
main features are:
Written and rigid Constitution
Division of powers between Centre and States
Independent judiciary
Common Constitution for Centre and States
Supremacy of the Constitution
Single citizenship
Greater role for the Centre in amendment
More subjects and powers for the Centre
Bicameral legislature
Q20: What
does Article 1 of the Constitution say about India?
A: Article
1 says, “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” It
does not clearly use the word “federal state.”
Part 5: Division of Powers in the Seventh Schedule
Q21: What is
the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution about?
A: The
Seventh Schedule deals with the division of law-making powers between
the Central and State governments.
Q22: What is
the Union List? Give examples.
A: The
Union List contains subjects on which only the Central government can
make laws. In the beginning, it had 97 subjects. Examples are foreign
affairs, defence, railways, banking, and citizenship.
Q23: What is
the State List? Give examples.
A: The
State List contains subjects on which State governments can normally
make laws. In the beginning, it had 66 subjects. Examples are
agriculture, prisons, police, and local self-government.
Q24: What is
the Concurrent List? Give examples.
A: The
Concurrent List contains subjects on which both the Centre and States
can make laws. In the beginning, it had 47 subjects. Examples are
education, forests, trade unions, marriage, and registration of
births and deaths.
Q25: What are
residuary powers? Who has them?
A: Residuary
powers are the law-making powers on matters not included in any of
the three lists. These powers belong to the Central government.
Example: cyber laws.
Part 6: Separation of Powers
Q26: How does
the Indian Constitution prevent concentration of power?
A: The
Constitution prevents all power from being concentrated in one
branch. It divides power among the legislature, executive, and
judiciary. This helps prevent dictatorship and protects democracy.
Q27:
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, what is the purpose of limiting
powers?
A: Dr. Ambedkar said that
the purpose of limiting powers is to prevent oppression.
Part 7: Legislature
Q28: What is
the legislature of India?
A: The
Parliament of India is the legislature of India.
Q29: What is
the main responsibility of Parliament?
A: Its
main responsibilities are making laws, understanding the wishes of
the people, responding to changes, and achieving national goals.
Q30: What is
meant by bicameralism?
A: Bicameralism
means a two-House system of law-making. In India, these two Houses
are the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Lok Sabha
Q31: What is
Lok Sabha? How are its members elected?
A: Lok
Sabha is the lower House of Parliament. Its members are directly
elected by the people through the majority system.
Q32: What are
the qualifications to contest for Lok Sabha?
A: A
person must be an Indian citizen and must be at least 25 years old.
Q33: What is
the term of the Lok Sabha?
A: The
term of the Lok Sabha is 5 years.
Q34: What is
the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha? What is its present
strength?
A: The maximum strength
is 550. Its present strength is 543 (2023).
Q35: What are
the special features of the Lok Sabha?
A:
The government is formed on the basis of majority in the Lok Sabha.
The Speaker presides over it.
It has more powers than the Rajya Sabha in some matters.
Money Bills are first introduced here.
Rajya Sabha
Q36: What is
Rajya Sabha? Who elects its members?
A: Rajya
Sabha is the upper House of Parliament. It gives representation to
the states according to population. Its members are elected by the
elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
Q37: What are
the qualifications to contest for Rajya Sabha?
A: A
person must be an Indian citizen and must be at least 30 years old.
Q38: What
does it mean when Rajya Sabha is called a permanent House?
A: Rajya
Sabha is not dissolved. Members have a term of 6 years, and one-third
of the members retire every two years.
Q39: What is
the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?
A: The
maximum strength is 250 members. Out of these, 238 are elected and 12
are nominated by the President.
Q40: What are
the special powers of the Rajya Sabha?
A:
It is presided over by the Vice-President.
The process to remove the Vice-President starts in this House.
It can give Parliament the power to create a new All India Service.
Functions of Parliament
Q41: What are
the main functions of Parliament?
A:
Making laws
Protecting public money
Taking part in the election of the President and Vice-President
Acting in impeachment matters
Considering Constitutional amendments
Controlling the executive
Law-Making Process
Q42: Why is
law-making in India called a political process also?
A: It
is called a political process because it is not only a technical
method of making laws, but also a process that responds to public
opinion.
Q43: What are
the different types of Bills?
A:
Government Bill – introduced by ministers
Private Member Bill – introduced by an MP who is not a minister
Money Bill – related to public money and expenditure; introduced first in Lok Sabha
Non-Money Bill – all other bills, including ordinary bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills
Q44: What are
the stages through which a Bill becomes a law?
A:
First Reading – the Bill is introduced in one House.
Second Reading – it is discussed or sent to a committee; changes can be made.
Third Reading – the House passes or rejects the Bill.
Then the same process happens in the other House.
If both Houses pass it, it is sent to the President.
After the President’s approval, it becomes a law.
Part 8: Constitutional Amendment
Q45: What is
meant by Constitutional Amendment?
A: Constitutional
Amendment means making changes, deletions, or additions in the
Constitution.
Q46: Why is
Constitutional Amendment necessary?
A: It
is necessary because the Constitution must change with social and
political needs over time.
Q47: Under
which Article is the power of Constitutional Amendment given, and to
whom?
A: Under Article 368, the
power of amendment is given to Parliament.
Q48: Is the
prior permission of the President needed for a Constitutional
Amendment Bill?
A: No, prior
permission of the President is not needed.
Q49: What is
necessary for passing a Constitutional Amendment?
A: Approval
of both Houses is necessary. If there is disagreement between the two
Houses, there is no joint sitting for a Constitutional Amendment
Bill.
Q50: What are
the different methods of Constitutional Amendment?
A:
Flexible amendment – simple majority in Parliament. Example: names of states, boundaries, citizenship.
Rigid amendment – special majority in both Houses. Example: Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles.
More rigid amendment – special majority in both Houses plus approval by at least half of the states. Example: division of powers between Centre and States, representation of people.
Q51: Give
examples of Constitutional Amendments.
A:
101st Amendment – introduced Goods and Services Tax
86th Amendment – made education a Fundamental Right
61st Amendment – reduced voting age to 18 years
Part 9: Executive
Q52: What is
the executive?
A: The executive
is the branch of government responsible for implementing laws and
policies and for running the administration.
Q53: Who are
included in the executive?
A: The
President, the Vice-President, and the Cabinet headed by the Prime
Minister are included in the executive.
Q54:
Constitutionally, who has executive powers? Who actually uses
them?
A: Constitutionally,
executive powers are vested in the President. But actually, they are
used by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Q55: What are
the different types of executive?
A:
Political executive – President, Prime Minister, and Council of Ministers
Permanent executive – civil servants
Nominal executive – President
Real executive – Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
President
Q56: Who is
the President?
A: The President
is the executive head of the Indian state.
Q57: What are
the qualifications to become President?
A: A
person must be an Indian citizen and must be at least 35 years old.
Q58: Who
elects the President?
A: The
President is elected by an Electoral College made up of the elected
members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of State
Legislative Assemblies.
Q59: What is
the term of the President?
A: The
term of the President is 5 years.
Q60: What are
the main powers of the President?
A:
Summoning Parliament
Dissolving Lok Sabha
Appointing the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
Appointing judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
Appointing State Governors
Declaring Emergency
Acting as the Supreme Commander of the defence forces
Q61: To whom
does the President submit resignation?
A: The
President submits resignation to the Vice-President.
Q62: Does the
President have to act according to the advice of the Council of
Ministers?
A: Generally, the
President acts according to the advice of the Council of Ministers.
But in some cases, the President has discretionary powers.
Prime Minister
Q63: Who is
the Prime Minister?
A: The Prime
Minister is the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok
Sabha and is the real head of the government.
Q64: What are
the main duties of the Prime Minister?
A:
Forming the Council of Ministers
Deciding the Cabinet members
Changing departments and including or removing members
Coordinating between the President, Cabinet, and Parliament
Q65: What
must the Prime Minister do if the ruling party loses majority?
A: If
the ruling party or coalition loses majority, the Prime Minister must
resign.
Council of Ministers
Q66: Whom
does the Council of Ministers help?
A: The
Council of Ministers helps the President in carrying out duties. The
Prime Minister is its head.
Q67: What are
the main duties of the Council of Ministers?
A:
Forming national and foreign policies
Leading the law-making process
Performing administrative and welfare duties
Maintaining foreign relations
Preparing Bills and Ordinances
Coordinating departments
Permanent Executive
Q68: What is
the permanent executive?
A: The
permanent executive means the civil servants who carry out daily
government work and help the political executive in preparing bills,
including the Budget.
Q69: Why are
civil servants called “permanent”?
A: They
are called permanent because they continue their work even when
governments change.
Q70: Who are
included in the civil services?
A: They
include All India Services, Central Services, and State Services.
These are trained and qualified officials selected through
competitive examinations.
Part 10: Judiciary
Q71: What is
the main duty of the judiciary?
A: The
main duty of the judiciary is to make sure that laws and government
actions follow the Constitution, to protect the Constitution, and to
safeguard Fundamental Rights.
Q72: What is
the structure of the Indian judicial system?
A: India
has a single integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the
top. It has a pyramid structure, with more authority at the top.
Supreme Court
Q73: When was
the Supreme Court established? Where is it located?
A: The
Supreme Court was established on 28 January 1950. It is located in
New Delhi.
Q74: What is
the retirement age of Supreme Court judges?
A: The
retirement age of Supreme Court judges is 65 years.
Q75: Who can
remove judges?
A: Judges can be
removed by Parliament.
Q76: Before
whom do the Chief Justice and other judges take oath? To whom do they
submit resignation?
A: They take
oath before the President and submit resignation to the President.
Q77: What
service does the Supreme Court give to the Constitution?
A: The
Supreme Court acts as the highest interpreter of the Constitution and
the protector of Fundamental Rights.
Q78: What are
the powers of the Supreme Court?
A:
Original jurisdiction – deals with matters like disputes between Centre and States
Appellate jurisdiction – hears appeals against lower court judgments
Advisory jurisdiction – gives legal advice to the President when asked
Writ jurisdiction – gives special orders to protect Fundamental Rights
Judicial review – declares unconstitutional laws invalid
Q79: What is
judicial review?
A: Judicial
review is the power of the court to examine whether laws and orders
are according to the Constitution. If they are against the
Constitution, the court can declare them invalid.
Part 11: Checks and Balances
Q80: What is
meant by checks and balances?
A: Checks
and balances is the system in which powers are divided among the
legislature, executive, and judiciary, and each branch controls and
balances the others.
Q81: How does
Parliament control the executive and judiciary?
A:
It controls the executive through budget approval and question hour.
It controls the judiciary through impeachment.
Q82: How does
the judiciary control the other branches?
A: The
judiciary controls Parliament and the executive through judicial
review.
Q83: How does
the executive control the other branches?
A:
It controls Parliament by giving approval to bills and dealing with mercy petitions.
It influences the judiciary through appointment and transfer of judges.
Q84: How does
the system of checks and balances help Indian democracy?
A: It
prevents concentration of power and authoritarian rule, and helps to
protect democracy.




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